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NEW QUESTION 101
Which product was first provided commercially by Cisco?

A.    Fiber-optic networking
B.    Multiprotocol routers
C.    Wireless networking
D.    Remote access devices

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 102
Which is a key benefit of Cisco UCS?

A.    Hardware-centric design
B.    Distributed infrastructure management
C.    Integrated third-party applications
D.    Unified network fabric

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
Which Cisco technology uses software-defined segmentation to simplify the provisioning of network access, accelerate security operations, and consistently enforce policy?

A.    Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
B.    Cisco Talos
C.    Cisco Stealthwatch Engine
D.    Cisco TrustSec

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 104
Which collaboration product can count meeting participants and provide analytics for usage and resource planning?

A.    Cisco Webex Room Series
B.    Cisco Webex Board
C.    Cisco Mx Series
D.    Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 105
Which Cisco cloud-managed solution allows customers to unify management in a secure, browser-based dashboard?

A.    Cisco Hyperflex
B.    Cisco UCS
C.    Cisco Meraki
D.    Cisco Intersight

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 106
Which of the fllowing could be defined as a long-term plan that enables the business to work toward achieving its vision by considering business operations, value proposition, customers, and finance?

A.    Mission
B.    Strategy
C.    Goals
D.    Objectives

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 107
What is the negative impact of digitization on businesses?

A.    Moving applications away from the web.
B.    Increasing the security of data.
C.    Making old experiences seem new.
D.    Putting demands on the network.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 108
What is one benefit of the Cisco SD-WAN solution?

A.    Providing guest networks for customers, system integrators, and vendors.
B.    Continuous monitoring of the entire network environment in order to detect abnormal wireless activity.
C.    Establishing transport-independent WAN for lower cost and higher diversity.
D.    Supporting agile software development and deployment processes through a single point of management.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 109
Which of the following are included on the Offering Pattern Reference Model?

A.    pricing schedules, service agreements, routes to market, and opportunity paradigms
B.    offerings, pricing schedules, service agreements, and routes to market
C.    offeings, routes to market, pricing schedules, and service agreements
D.    offerings, markets, pricing methods, location, and routes to market

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 110
Which of the following is not a feature of Cisco ONE software?

A.    License portability and fleibility.
B.    Software license tied to hardware.
C.    Access to innovation, upgrades and new capabilities.
D.    Simple set of solutions in networks and cloud.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 111
In addressing the full attack continuum, what type of capabilities are required before an attack?

A.    Preventive and Response
B.    Preventive and Detective
C.    Predictive and Response
D.    Preventive and Predictive

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 112
Which of the following are included in Cisco’s current networking product lines?

A.    Switches, routers, and application delivery controllers.
B.    Application delivery controllers, LAN, and WAN.
C.    Switches, routers, LAN, and WAN.
D.    Switches, routers, application delivery controllers, LAN, and WAN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 113
Which of the following could be considered a business outcome?

A.    Respect employees, customers, and suppliers.
B.    To nourish people and the planet.
C.    Implement a direct-to-customer experience by the end of FY 2021.
D.    Customer experience/innovation fulfillment.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 114
Which Cisco network administration product enables the creation and enforcement of security and access polices for a company’s connected endpoint devices?

A.    Cisco ldentity Services Engine
B.    Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
C.    Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise
D.    Cisco TrustSec

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 115
Which phrase describes the benefits of the Cisco UCS product range?

A.    Cloud-based security solution allowing customers to be protected on any device at any location.
B.    Communication on an all-in-one platform designed to fit the way customers work.
C.    Increased productivity, reduced total cost of ownership, and scalability to the data center.
D.    Cloud-based service allowing customers to set up and configure an entire virtual data center in minutes.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 116
How is creating and capturing business value achieved by Cisco?

A.    Delving into the main issues faced by customers and getting feedback from previous work done.
B.    Measuring the efforts of every team in delivering on their promises.
C.    Determining the business priorities, business capabilities, and business solutions that enable the customer-defined outcomes.
D.    Strategizing with the sales team on how to empower their sales personnel in attaining business goals.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 117
Which of the following are features of the Cisco Firepower NGFW?

A.    Threat focused
B.    Unified management
C.    Cloud based
D.    Fully integrated

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 118
Which type of business requirements define the required parameter for a solution?

A.    Transitional requirements
B.    General business requirements
C.    Technical requirements
D.    Functional requirements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 119
What key aspect of digitization allows the deployment of new services without lengthy and costly investments in server or networking infrastructure?

A.    Streaming services
B.    Enterprise network architecture
C.    Cloud computing
D.    Data science

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 120
Which of the following is not a factor that drives the target state of the business at a customer organization?

A.    Mission
B.    Values
C.    Vision
D.    Client engagement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 121
……

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NEW QUESTION 411
A security engineer is deploying an IdP to broker authentication between applications. These applications all utilize SAML 2.0 for authentication. Users log into the IdP with their credentials and are given a list of applications they may access. One of the application’s authentications is not functional when a user initiates an authentication attempt from the IdP. The engineer modifies the configuration so users browse to the application first, which corrects the issue. Which of the following BEST describes the root cause?

A.    The application only supports SP-initiated authentication.
B.    The IdP only supports SAML 1.0.
C.    There is an SSL certificate mismatch between the IdP and the SaaS application.
D.    The user is not provisioned correctly on the IdP.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 412
A security manager recently categorized an information system. During the categorization effort, the manager determined the loss of integrity of a specific information type would impact business significantly. Based on this, the security manager recommends the implementation of several solutions. Which of the following, when combined, would BEST mitigate this risk? (Choose two.)

A.    Access control
B.    Whitelisting
C.    Signing
D.    Validation
E.    Boot attestation

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 413
A penetration test is being scoped for a set of web services with API endpoints. The APIs will be hosted on existing web application servers. Some of the new APIs will be available to unauthenticated users, but some will only be available to authenticated users. Which of the following tools or activities would the penetration tester MOST likely use or do during the engagement? (Choose two.)

A.    Static code analyzer
B.    Intercepting proxy
C.    Port scanner
D.    Reverse engineering
E.    Reconnaissance gathering
F.    User acceptance testing

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 414
As part of the development process for a new system, the organization plans to perform requirements analysis and risk assessment. The new system will replace a legacy system, which the organization has used to perform data analytics. Which of the following is MOST likely to be part of the activities conducted by management during this phase of the project?

A.    Static code analysis and peer review of all application code.
B.    Validation of expectations relating to system performance and security.
C.    Load testing the system to ensure response times is acceptable to stakeholders.
D.    Design reviews and user acceptance testing to ensure the system has been deployed properly.
E.    Regression testing to evaluate interoperability with the legacy system during the deployment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 415
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically destroyed. Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?

A.    Sovereignty
B.    E-waste
C.    Remanence
D.    Deduplication

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 416
During a criminal investigation, the prosecutor submitted the original hard drive from the suspect’s computer as evidence. The defense objected during the trial proceedings, and the evidence was rejected. Which of the following practices should the prosecutor’s forensics team have used to ensure the suspect’s data would be admissible as evidence? (Choose two.)

A.    Follow chain of custody best practices.
B.    Create an identical image of the original hard drive, store the original securely, and then perform forensics only on the imaged drive.
C.    Use forensics software on the original hard drive and present generated reports as evidence.
D.    Create a tape backup of the original hard drive and present the backup as evidence.
E.    Create an exact image of the original hard drive for forensics purposes, and then place the original back in service.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 417
An organization just merged with an organization in another legal jurisdiction and must improve its network security posture in ways that do not require additional resources to implement data isolation. One recommendation is to block communication between endpoint PCs. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?

A.    Installing HIDS
B.    Configuring a host-based firewall
C.    Configuring EDR
D.    Implementing network segmentation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 418
After several industry comnpetitors suffered data loss as a result of cyebrattacks, the Chief Operating Officer (COO) of a company reached out to the information security manager to review the organization’s security stance. As a result of the discussion, the COO wants the organization to meet the following criteria:
– Blocking of suspicious websites
– Prevention of attacks based on threat intelligence
– Reduction in spam
– Identity-based reporting to meet regulatory compliance
– Prevention of viruses based on signature
– Project applications from web-based threats
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation the information security manager could make?

A.    Reconfigure existing IPS resources
B.    Implement a WAF
C.    Deploy a SIEM solution
D.    Deploy a UTM solution
E.    Implement an EDR platform

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 419
A company’s chief cybersecurity architect wants to configure mutual authentication to access an internal payroll website. The architect has asked the administration team to determine the configuration that would provide the best defense against MITM attacks. Which of the folowing implementation approaches would BEST support the architect’s goals?

A.    Utilize a challenge-response prompt as required input at username/password entry.
B.    Implement TLS and require the client to use its own certificate during handshake.
C.    Configure a web application proxy and institute monitoring of HTTPS transactions.
D.    Install a reverse proxy in the corporate DMZ configured to decrypt TLS sessions.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 420
A company is not familiar with the risks associated with IPv6. The systems administrator wants to isolate IPv4 from IPv6 traffic between two different network segments. Which of the following should the company implement? (Choose two.)

A.    Use an internal firewall to block UDP port 3544.
B.    Disable network discovery protocol on all company routers.
C.    Block IP protocol 41 using Layer 3 switches.
D.    Disable the DHCPv6 service from all routers.
E.    Drop traffic for ::/0 at the edge firewall.
F.    Implement a 6in4 proxy server.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 421
With which of the following departments should an engineer for a consulting firm coordinate when determining the control and reporting requirements for storage of sensitive, proprietary customer information?

A.    Human resources
B.    Financial
C.    Sales
D.    Legal counsel

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 422
The Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) from two different companies are discussing the highly sensitive prospect of merging their respective companies together. Both have invited their Chief Information Officers (CIOs) to discern how they can securely and digitaly communicate, and the following criteria are collectively determined:
– Must be encrypted on the email servers and clients
– Must be OK to transmit over unsecure Internet connections
Which of the following communication methods would be BEST to recommend?

A.    Force TLS between domains.
B.    Enable STARTTLS on both domains.
C.    Use PGP-encrypted emails.
D.    Switch both domains to utilize DNSSEC.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 423
A bank is initiating the process of acquiring another smaller bank. Before negotiations happen between the organizations, which of the follwing business documents would be used as the FIRST step in the process?

A.    MOU
B.    OLA
C.    BPA
D.    NDA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 424
A company wants to confirm sufficient executable space protection is in place for scenarios in which malware may be attempting buffer overflow attacks. Which of the following should the security engineer check?

A.    NX/XN
B.    ASLR
C.    strcpy
D.    ECC

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 425
Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in secure environment?

A.    NDA
B.    MOU
C.    BIA
D.    SLA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 426
Within the past six months, a company has experienced a series of attacks directed at various collaboration tools. Additionally, sensitive information was compromised during a recent security breach of a remote access session from an unsecure site. As a result, the company is requiring all collaboration tools to comply with the following:
– Secure messaging between internal users using digital signatures
– Secure sites for video-conferencing sessions
– Presence information for all office employees
– Restriction of certain types of messages to be allowed into the network
Which of the following applications must be configured to meet the new requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    Remote desktop
B.    VoIP
C.    Remote assistance
D.    Email
E.    Instant messaging
F.    Social media websites

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 427
Following a recent data breach, a company has hired a new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO). The CISO is very concerned about the response time to the previous breach and wishes to know how the security team expects to react to a future attack. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve this goal while minimizing disruption?

A.    Perform a black box assessment.
B.    Hire an external red team audit.
C.    Conduct a tabletop exercise.
D.    Recreate the previous breach.
E.    Conduct an external vulnerability assessment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 428
A technician is validating compliance with organizational policies. The user and machine accounts in the AD are not set to expire, which is non-compliant. Which of the following network tools would provide this type of information?

A.    SIEM server
B.    IDS appliance
C.    SCAP scanner
D.    HTTP interceptor

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 429
An organization’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO) was the target of several different social engineering attacks recently. The CFO has subsequently worked closely with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to increase awareness of what attacks may look like. An unexpected email arrives in the CFO’s inbox from a familiar name with an attachment. Which of the following should the CISO task a security analyst with to determine whether or not the attachment is safe?

A.    Place it in a malware sandbox.
B.    Perform a code review of the attachment.
C.    Conduct a memory dump of the CFO’s PC.
D.    Run a vulnerability scan on the email server.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 430
An organization is currently performing a market scan for managed security services and EDR capability. Which of the following business documents should be released to the prospective vendors in the first step of the process? (Choose two.)

A.    MSA
B.    RFP
C.    NDA
D.    RFI
E.    MOU
F.    RFQ

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 431
……

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NEW QUESTION 466
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed. You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found. You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP. Which tool should you use?

A.    Services
B.    Authorization Manager
C.    Active Directory Sites and Services
D.    TMP Management
E.    Active Directory Users and Computers
F.    Active Directory Domains and Trusts

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://kb.watchfulsoftware.com/pages/viewpage.action?pageId=1999181

NEW QUESTION 467
You have a Hyper-V failover cluster named Cluster1. On Cluster1, you create a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to move VM1 by using quick migration. What should you use?

A.    the failover Cluster manager console
B.    the Move-VM cmdlet
C.    the Hyper-V Manager console
D.    the Start-VMFailover cmdlet

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hyper-v-live-migration-methods/

NEW QUESTION 468
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is in workgroup. Server2 is in a domain. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that you can use live migration to move VM1 from Server1 to Server2. What should you do first?

A.    Create a hidden share named LiveMig$ on Server2.
B.    Configure the Administration account on Server2 to use the same password.
C.    Add Server1 to a domain.
D.    Modify the Integration Services settings of VM1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/hyper-v/deploy/set-up-hosts-for-live-migration-without-failover-clustering

NEW QUESTION 469
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Live migration is configured in Server1 and Server2. You sign in to Server1, and then you create a virtual machine named VM1 on Server1. You move VM1 to Server2 by using live migration. You need to use live migration to move VM1 back to Server1. You must perform the move from Server1. What should you do first?

A.    Enable Windows PowerShell remoting on Server2.
B.    Configure delegation on the Server1 computer object.
C.    Configure delegation on the Server2 computer object.
D.    Enable Windows PowerShell remoting on Server1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/learn/remoting/running-remote-commands?view=powershell-6

NEW QUESTION 470
Your company has offices in Montreal and Seattle. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains one domain and two sites named Montreal and Seattle. The Seattle office contains two domain controllers named DC4 and DC5. You physically relocate DC5 from the Seattle office to the Montreal office. You discover that DC5 continues to authenticate users in the Seattle office. You need to ensure that the Seattle office users are authenticated by DC4, unless DC4 is unavailable. What should you do?

A.    From Active Directory Sites and Services, move the DC5 server object.
B.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, move the computer account of DC5.
C.    From Active Directory Sites and services, modify the NTDS Site Settings for the Seattle office.
D.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the NTDS Setting for the computer account of DC5.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2015/03/03/step-by-step-setting-up-active-directory-sites-subnets-site-links/

NEW QUESTION 471
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains one domain and two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains a domain controller named DC1. Site2 contains a domain controller named DC2. Replication is allowed between the sites daily from 01:00 to 05:00. At 14:00, an administrator deletes an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 from DC1. One hour later, on DC2, an administrator creates a user account named User1 in OU1. Where will you find the User1 object after replication occurs between the sites?

A.    in the Active Directory Recycle Bin
B.    in the ActiveDirectoryUpdate container
C.    in the LostAndFound container
D.    in the DomainUpdates container

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://techguyvijay.blogspot.com/2012/03/lost-and-found-folder-in-active.html

NEW QUESTION 472
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a single volume that is encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). BitLocker is configured to save encryption keys to a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). Server1 is configured to perform a daily system image backup. The motherboard on Server1 is upgraded. After the upgrade, Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1 fails to start. You need to start the operating system on Server1 as soon as possible. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server from the installation media. Run startrec.exe.
B.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Perform a system image recovery.
C.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server. Run tpm.msc.
D.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server from the installation media.
Run the BitLocker Recovery Password Viewer tool.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 473
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five hard drives (HDDs) and two solid state drives (SSDs). You add four of the HDDs and the two SSDs to a storage pool. On Server1, you need to create a mirror space that has storage tiers. What should you use?

A.    The New-VirtualDisk cmdlet
B.    The Disk Management console
C.    The New-VHD cmdlet
D.    The diskpart.exe command

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askpfeplat/2013/10/20/storage-spaces-how-to-configure-storage-tiers-with-windows-server-2012-r2/

NEW QUESTION 474
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user account named User1. Server1 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone named adatum.com. You need to provide User1 with the ability to create only A records in the adatum.com zone. What should you do?

A.    Modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer object.
B.    Run the New Delegation for the adatum.com zone.
C.    Install and configure IP Address Management (IPAM) Server.
D.    Modify the Security settings of the adatum.com zone.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2008-R2-and-2008/cc753213(v%3dws.11)

NEW QUESTION 475
You have a server named Server1. You install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1. You need to provide a user named User1 with the ability to set the access scope of all the DHCP servers that are managed by IPAM. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which user role should you assign to User1?

A.    DNS Record Administrator Role
B.    IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role
C.    IP Address Record Administrator Role
D.    IPAM DHCP Administrator Role

Answer: D
Explanation:
The IPAM DHCP administrator role completely manages DHCP servers.

NEW QUESTION 476
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role installed. The domain contains a domain local group named Group1. You create a rights policy template named Template1. You need to ensure that all the members of Group1 can use Template1. What should you do?

A.    Configure the email address attribute of Group1 and configure the email address attribute of all the users who are members of Group1.
B.    Convert the scope of Group1 to global and configure the email address attribute of Group1.
C.    Convert the scope of Group1 to universal and assign Group1 the rights to Template1.
D.    Configure the email address attribute of all the users who are members of Group1 and assign Group1 the rights to Template1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/13130.ad-rms-troubleshooting-guide.aspx

NEW QUESTION 477
Drag and Drop
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Serve1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a USB flash drive that contains a bootable Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE). The flash drive has the drive letter F. An administrator provides you with a custom Windows RE image named C:\Images\Boot.wim. You need to ensure that when you start a client computer from the USB flash drive, the custom Windows RE image loads. Which command should you run? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 478
You have a server named Server1 that runs Window server 2012 R2. You install the DHCP server role on Server1. You need to create a multicast scope on Server1. What is a valid IP address range to use for the multicast scope?

A.    255.255.1.10 – 255.255.2.10
B.    224.16.1.10 – 224.16.2.10
C.    169.254.1.10 – 169.254.2.10
D.    172.16.1.10 – 172.16.2.10
E.    10.0.1.10 – 10.0.2.10

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.techveze.com/creating-configuring-superscopes-multicast-scopes/

NEW QUESTION 479
You have two servers named Server1 and server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. On volume D of Server1, you create a share named Share1. Volume D has 1 TB of free space. Server2 uses 20 GB of disk space. 1 GB of data is modified daily. You install Windows Server Backup on Server2. You configure Windows Server Backup to perform a daily backup of Server2 and to store the backup in \\Server1\Share1. The scheduled backup completes successfully on Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday. Which backups will be available in \\Server1?

A.    The daily backup from Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday.
B.    Only the daily backup from Wednesday.
C.    The daily backup from Monday and a differential backup from Wednesday.
D.    The daily backup from Monday and incremental backups from Tuesday and Wednesday.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. A domain user named User1 is a member of the following domain groups:
– DnsAdmins
– Backup Operators
– Account Operators
– DHCP Administrators
– Hyper-V Administrators
– Allowed RODC Password Replication Group
User1 is authenticated by RODC1. You discover that the password for User1 is not cached on RODC1. Which two groups prevent the password from being cached on RODC1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    DnsAdmins
B.    Allowed RODC Password Replication Group
C.    Backup Operators
D.    DHCP Administrators
E.    Hyper-V Administrators
F.    Account Operators

Answer: CF
Explanation:
http://www.rebeladmin.com/2014/10/password-replication-in-rodc/

NEW QUESTION 481
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a single volume that is encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). BitLocker is configured to save encryption keys to a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). Server1 is configured to perform a daily system image backup. The motherboard on Server1 is upgraded. After the upgrade, Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1 fails to start. You need to start the operating system on Server1 as soon as possible. What should you do?

A.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server from the installation media.
Run the BitLocker Recovery Password Viewer tool.
B.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Run startrec.exe.
C.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Perform a system image recovery.
D.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Run bcdboot.exe.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/928202/how-to-use-the-bitlocker-recovery-password-viewer-for-active-directory

NEW QUESTION 482
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which NetApp tool views automated, schedule configuration, and performance data for a customer’s SAN from a Web browser?

A.    Virtual Storage Console
B.    OnCommand Workflow Analyzer
C.    Config Advisor
D.    Active IQ

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
A customer wants to use both Cisco FC and FCoE switches in their ONTAP environment. According to NetApp best practices, what are two requirements in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    You must use single initiator zoning.
B.    You must create interface groups to isolate FC and FCoE LIFs.
C.    You must create a trunk with multiple virtual LANs.
D.    You must not have more than one target UF for the same physical port in a single fabric zone.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 3
What does the space allocation argument in a LUN create command do?

A.    It thick provisions the LUN.
B.    It only disables space reclamation for the LUN.
C.    It thin provisions the LUN.
D.    It enables or disables space reclamation for the LUN.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
You are deploying an 8-node FAS8200 ONTAP cluster and attaching to an existing FC fabric. Which two ONTAP features would be used to restrict or limit the available paths seen from the host? (Choose two.)

A.    port sets
B.    igroup
C.    VIAN
D.    Selective LUN Map

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 5
You are setting up FC ports and must configure the speeds for both the SAN and the host ports. In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A.    Set the target port speed higher than the switch port speed.
B.    Set the target port speed to auto-negotiation.
C.    Set the target port speed to match the switch port speed.
D.    Set the target port speed lower than the switch port speed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
You must relocate a LUN from one AFF A700 HA pair to another AFF A300 HA pair while preserving all storage efficiencies. What are two ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    Copy the volume.
B.    Copy the LUN.
C.    Move the volume.
D.    Move the LUN.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two components must be verified for a supported NetApp SAN confutation? (Choose two.)

A.    host memory
B.    host GPU
C.    host multipath
D.    host bus adapter

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 8
An administrator is migrating from a third-party’s SAN to a newly purchased FAS9000. The administrator decides to use the NetApp Foreign LUN Import (FLI) process. What must the administrator do for this process to work properly?

A.    Create multiple igroups for the Initiator ports.
B.    Create six distinct zones that include specific ports within each zone.
C.    Zone target ports of source storage with initiator ports of destination storage.
D.    Make the destination LUN larger than the foreign LUN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Your server administrator upgraded a Windows 2016 Server from 16 GB to 32 GB HBAs. The application owner is now reporting slower performance to the AFF A700. Which two actions will help troubleshoot performance on the server? (Choose two.)

A.    Verify the HBA model using Hardware Universe.
B.    Verify the HBA firmware using the Interoperability Matrix Tool.
C.    Confirm that LUN mapping exists.
D.    Confirm that Windows Host Utilities is installed.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
What are two examples of supported NetApp FC configurations? (Choose two.)

A.    a single NetApp node directly connected to a single host
B.    a single switched environment with a NetApp node connected to only one host
C.    a dual switched environment with a NetApp node connected to multiple hosts
D.    a single NetApp node directly connected to multiple hosts

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 11
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.)

A.    Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers.
B.    Extend timeout timers.
C.    Include the group of guest users in a policy.
D.    Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required port.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements correctly describes FortiGate’s route lookup behavior when searching for a suitable gateway? (Choose two.)

A.    Lookup is done on the trust packet from the session originator.
B.    Lookup is done on the last packet sent from the responder.
C.    Lookup is done on every packet, regardless of direction.
D.    Lookup is done on the trust reply packet from the responder.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to create a policy-based IPsec VPN tunnel between two FortiGate devices. Which configuration steps must be performed on both devices to support this scenario? (Choose three.)

A.    Define the phase 1 parameters, without enabling IPsec interface mode.
B.    Define the phase 2 parameters.
C.    Set the phase 2 encapsulation method to transport mode.
D.    Define at least one firewall policy, with the action set to IPsec.
E.    Define a route to the remote network over the IPsec tunnel.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 4
Why does FortiGate keep TCP sessions in the session table for some seconds even after both sides (client and server) have terminated the session?

A.    To remove the NAT operation.
B.    To generate logs.
C.    To finish any inspection operations.
D.    To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
What information is flushed when the chunk-size value is changed in the config DLP settings?

A.    The database for DLP document fingerprinting.
B.    The supported file types in the DLP filters.
C.    The archived files and messages.
D.    The file name patterns in the DLP filters.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
On a FortiGate with a hard disk, how can you upload logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A.    hourly
B.    real tune
C.    on-demand
D.    store-and-upload

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 7
Which statement about DLP on FortiGate is true?

A.    It can archive files and messages.
B.    It can be applied to a firewall policy in a flow-based VDOM.
C.    Traffic shaping can be applied to DLP sensors.
D.    Files can be sent to FortiSandbox for detecting DLP threats.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to?

A.    A person
B.    A subordinate CA
C.    A root CA
D.    A CRL

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following SD-WAN load-balancing method use interface weight value to distribute traffic? (Choose two.)

A.    Source IP
B.    Spillover
C.    Volume
D.    Session

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 10
What FortiGate components are tested during the hardware test? (Choose three.)

A.    Hard disk
B.    CPU
C.    HA heartbeat
D.    Network interfaces
E.    Administrative access

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which statement about the IP authentication header (AH) used by IPsec is true?

A.    AH does not provide any data integrity or encryption.
B.    AH does not support perfect forward secrecy.
C.    AH provides data integrity but no encryption.
D.    AH provides strong data integrity but weak encryption.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following static routes are not maintained in the routing table? (Choose two.)

A.    Named Address routes
B.    Dynamic routes
C.    ISDB routes
D.    Policy routes

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 13
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NEW QUESTION 1
You’ve moved a registered logging device out of one ADOM and into a new ADOM. What happens when you rebuild the new ADOM database?

A.    FortiAnalyzer resets the disk quota of the new ADOM to default.
B.    FortiAnalyzer migrates archive logs to the new ADOM.
C.    FortiAnalyzer migrates analytics logs to the new ADOM.
D.    FortiAnalyzer removes logs from the old ADOM.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of employing RAID with FortiAnalyzer?

A.    To introduce redundancy to your log data.
B.    To provide data separation between ADOMs.
C.    To separate analytical and archive data.
D.    To back up your logs.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
How do you restrict an administrator’s access to a subset of your organization’s ADOMs?

A.    Set the ADOM mode to Advanced.
B.    Assign the ADOMs to the administrator’s account.
C.    Configure trusted hosts.
D.    Assign the default Super_User administrator profile.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result?

A.    Chart Builder
B.    Export to Report Chart
C.    Dataset Library
D.    Custom View

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
What must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to upload a FortiAnalyzer report to a supported external server? (Choose two.)

A.    SFTP, FTP, or SCP server
B.    Mail server
C.    Output profile
D.    Report scheduling

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 6
If you upgrade your FortiAnalyzer firmware, what report elements can be affected?

A.    Output profiles
B.    Report settings
C.    Report scheduling
D.    Custom datasets

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
On FortiAnalyzer, what is a wildcard administrator account?

A.    An account that permits access to members of an LDAP group.
B.    An account that allows guest access with read-only privileges.
C.    An account that requires two-factor authentication.
D.    An account that validates against any user account on a FortiAuthenticator.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
How can you configure FortiAnalyzer to permit administrator logins from only specific locations?

A.    Use static routes
B.    Use administrative profiles
C.    Use trusted hosts
D.    Use secure protocols

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Logs are being deleted from one of your ADOMs earlier that the configured setting for archiving in your data policy. What is the most likely problem?

A.    The total disk space is insufficient and you need to add other disk.
B.    CPU resources are too high.
C.    The ADOM disk quota is set too low based on log rates.
D.    Logs in that ADOM are being forwarded in real-time to another FortiAnalyzer device.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
What FortiGate process caches logs when FortiAnalyzer is not reachable?

A.    logfiled
B.    sqlplugind
C.    oftpd
D.    miglogd

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 1
In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A.    The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.
B.    The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.
C.    By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.
D.    The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following items does an FGFM keepalive message include? (Choose two.)

A.    FortiGate uptime.
B.    FortiGate license information.
C.    FortiGate IPS version.
D.    FortiGate configuration checksum.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements are true regarding ADOM revisions? (Choose two.)

A.    ADOM revisions can significantly increase the size of the configuration backups.
B.    ADOM revisions can save the current size of the whole ADOM.
C.    ADOM revisions can create System Checkpoints for the FortiManager configuration.
D.    ADOM revisions can save the current state of all policy packages and objects for an ADOM.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements are true regarding schedule backup of FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A.    Backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.
B.    Does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.
C.    Supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.
D.    Can be configured from the CLI and GUI.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 5
When installation is performed from the FortiManager, what is the recovery logic used between FortiManager and FortiGate for an FGFM tunnel?

A.    After 15 minutes, FortiGate will unset all CLI commands that were part of the installation that caused the tunnel to go down.
B.    FortiManager will revert and install a previous configuration revision on the managed FortiGate.
C.    FortiGate will reject the CLI commands that will cause the tunnel to go down.
D.    FortiManager will not push the CLI commands as a part of the installation that will cause the tunnel to go down.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
An administrator would like to create an SD-WAN default static route for a newly created SD-WAN using the FortiManager GUI. Both port1 and port2 are part of the SD-WAN member interfaces. Which interface must the administrator select in the static route device drop-down list?

A.    port2
B.    virtual-wan-link
C.    port1
D.    auto-discovery

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
What does a policy package status of Modified indicate?

A.    FortiManager is unable to determine the policy package status.
B.    The policy package was never imported after a device was registered on FortiManager.
C.    Policy configuration has been changed on a managed device and changes have not yet been imported into FortiManager.
D.    Policy package configuration has been changed on FortiManager and changes have not yet been installed on the managed device.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Policy Check feature on FortiManager?

A.    To find and provide recommendation to combine multiple separate policy packages into one common policy package.
B.    To find and merge duplicate policies in the policy package.
C.    To find and provide recommendation for optimizing policies in a policy package.
D.    To find and delete disabled firewall policies in the policy package.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator is unable to log in to FortiManager. Which one of the following troubleshooting step should you take to resolve the issue?

A.    Make sure FortiManager Access is enabled in the administrator profile.
B.    Make sure Offline Mode is disabled.
C.    Make sure the administrator IP address is part of the trusted hosts.
D.    Make sure ADOMs are enabled and the administrator has access to the Global ADOM.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
An administrator wants to delete an address object that is currently referenced in a firewall policy. Which one of the following statements is true?

A.    FortiManager will not allow the administrator to delete a referenced address object.
B.    FortiManager will disable the status of the referenced firewall policy.
C.    FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with the none address object in the referenced firewall policy.
D.    FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with all address object in the referenced firewall policy.

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 1
Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompressed feature of FortiWeb?

A.    In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file.
B.    In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file.
C.    In the case of compression being done on the web server, to inspect the content of the compressed file.
D.    In the case of the file being a .MP4 video file.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
What is one of the key benefits of the FortiGuard IP Reputation feature?

A.    FortiGuard maintains a list of public IPs with a bad reputation for participating in attacks.
B.    It is updated once per year.
C.    Provides a Document of IP addresses that are suspect, so that administrators can manually update their blacklists.
D.    It maintains a list of private IP addresses.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
In Reverse Proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle traffic that does not match any defined policies?

A.    Non-matching traffic is allowed.
B.    non-Matching traffic is held in buffer.
C.    Non-matching traffic is denied.
D.    Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A.    ADOMs do not have virtual networking.
B.    ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C.    ADOMs only affect specific functions, and do not provide full separation like VDOMs do.
D.    Allows you to have one administrator for multiple tenants.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have logged in. When a start page rule detects the invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)

A.    Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error.
B.    Allow the page access, but log the violation.
C.    Automatically redirect the client to the login page.
D.    Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page.
E.    Prompt the client to authenticate.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 6
When integrating FortiWeb and FortiAnalyzer, why is the selection for FortiWeb Version critical? (Choose two.)

A.    Defines Log file format.
B.    Defines communication protocol.
C.    Defines Database Schema.
D.    Defines Log storage location.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 7
Which operation mode does not require additional configuration in order to allow FTP traffic to your web server?

A.    Offline Protection
B.    Transparent Inspection
C.    True Transparent Proxy
D.    Reverse Proxy

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which implementation is best suited for a deployment that must meet compliance criteria?

A.    SSL Inspection with FortiWeb in Transparency mode.
B.    SSL Offloading with FortiWeb in Reverse Proxy mode.
C.    SSL Inspection with FrotiWeb in Reverse Proxy mode.
D.    SSL Offloading with FortiWeb in Transparency mode.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?

A.    Automatic backup and recovery
B.    High Availability
C.    HTTP/HTML Form Authentication
D.    SSL Inspection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
What benefit does Auto Learning provide?

A.    Automatically identifies and blocks suspicious IPs.
B.    FortiWeb scans all traffic without taking action and makes recommendations on rules.
C.    Automatically builds rules sets.
D.    Automatically blocks all detected threats.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You want to manage a FortiCloud service. The FortiGate shows up in your list devices on the FortiCloud web site, but all management functions are either missing or grayed out. Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    The managed FortiGate is running a version of FortiOS that is either too new or too old for FortiCloud.
B.    The managed FortiGate requires that a FortiCloud management license be purchased and applied.
C.    You must manually configure system control management on the FortiGate CLI and set the management type to FortiGuard.
D.    The management tunnel mode on the managed FortiGate must be changed to normal.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You are asked to add a FortiDDoS to the network to combat detected slow connection attacks such as Slowloris. Which prevention mode on FortiDDoS will protect you against this specific type of attack?

A.    aggressive aging mode
B.    rate limiting mode
C.    blocking mode
D.    asymmetric mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
An old router has been replaced by a FortiWAN device. The routers management IP address and now the network administrator want to remove the old router from the FortiSIEM configuration. Which two statements are true about this operation? (Choose two.)

A.    FortiSIEM will discover a new device for the FortiWAN with the same IP.
B.    The old router will be completely deleted from FortiSIEM’s CMDB.
C.    FortiSIEM needs a special syslog for FortiWAN.
D.    FortiSEIM will move the old router device into the Decommission folder.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 4
You have a customer experiencing problem with a legacy L3/L4 firewall device and IPv6 SIP VoIP traffic. The device is dropping SIP packets, consequently, it process SIP voice calls. Which solution would solve the customer’s problem?

A.    Deploy a FortiVoice and enable IPv6 SIP.
B.    Replace their legacy device with a FortiGate and configure it to extract information from the body of the IPv6 packet.
C.    Deploy a FotiVoice and enable an IPv6 SIP session helper.
D.    Replace their legacy device with a FortiGate and deploy a FortiVoice to extract information from the body of the IPv6 SIP packet.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
A company has just deployed a new FortiMail in gateway mode. The administrator is asked to strengthen e-mail protection by applying the policies shown below:
– E-mails can only be accepted if a valid e-mail account exists.
– Only authenticated users can send e-mails out.
Which two actions will satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure recipient address verification.
B.    Configure inbound recipient policies.
C.    Configure outbound recipient policies.
D.    Configure access control rules.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 6
You must create a high availability deployment with two FortiWebs in Amazon Services (AWS), each on different Availability Zones (AZ) from the same region. At the same time, each FortiWeb should be able to deliver content from the web server of both of the AZs. Which deployment would satisfy this requirement?

A.    Configure the FortiWebs in Active-Active HA mode and use AWS Router 53 to load balance for the internal Web servers.
B.    Configure the FortiWebs in Active-Active HA mode and use AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) for the internal Web servers.
C.    Use AWS Router 53 to load balance for FortiWebs in standalone mode and use AWS Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) peering to load balance for the internal Web servers.
D.    Use AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) for both FortiWebs in standalone mode and put the internal Web servers in an ELB sandwich.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
You are administrating the FortiGate 5000 and FortiGate 7000 series products. You want to access the HTTPS GU of the blade located in logical slot of the secondary chassis in a high-availability cluster. Which URL will accomplish this task?

A.    https//192.168.1.99:44302
B.    https//192.168.1.99:44313
C.    https//192.168.1.99:44322
D.    https//192.168.1.99:44323

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
An organization has one central site and three remote sites. A FortiSIEM has been drafted on the central site and now all devices across the remote sites need to be monitored by the FortiSIEM. Which action would reduce the WAN usage by the monitoring system?

A.    Deploy a single Supervisor on the central site and enable WAN optimize on the WAN gateways.
B.    Install Local Collector on remote sites.
C.    Disable monitoring on the remote sites during the day.
D.    Install a Supervisor and a Collector for each remote site.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
A customer wants to enable SYN Rood mitigation in a FortiDDoS device. The FortiDDoS must reply with one SYN/ACK packet per SYN packet from a new source IP address. Which SYN flood mitigation mode must the customer use?

A.    SYN cookie
B.    SYN/ACK cookie
C.    ACK cookie
D.    SYN retransmission

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Your client wants to use a central RADIUS server for management authentication when connecting to the FortiGate GUI and provide different levels of access for different types of employees. Which three actions required providing the requested functionality? (Choose three.)

A.    Enable radius-vdom-override in the CLI.
B.    Create a wildcard administrator on the FortiGate.
C.    Enable occprofile-override in the CLI.
D.    Set the RADIUS authencation type to MS-CHAPv2.
E.    Create multiple administrator profiles with matching RADIUS VSAs.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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NEW QUESTION 231
Which two components are used when creating an endpoint’s modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address? (Choose two.)

A.    Hexadecimal value of 0xFFFE
B.    48-bit MAC address
C.    64-bit MAC address
D.    Link local suffix
E.    IPv4 address

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 232
An engineer’s supervisor sees manual route summarization as complex and unnecessary. Which two arguments can be made for route summarization? (Choose two.)

A.    It advertises detailed routing tables.
B.    It reduces routing table size.
C.    It reduces the upstream impact of a flapping interface.
D.    It increases security by advertising fake networks.
E.    It utilizes the full CPU performance capacity on the routers.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 233
Which statement about Flex Links is true?

A.    Flex Links are supported only if the PVST protocol is used on the links.
B.    STP is disabled on Flex Links.
C.    Flex Links are supported only if the Cisco proprietary Rapid PVST protocol is used on the links.
D.    At least two backup interfaces are required to configure Flex Links.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 234
How many bits of an 802.1Q header are allocated for a VLAN identifier?

A.    8
B.    12
C.    24
D.    32

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 235
Which field in the Ethernet header is used to forward Ethernet frames?

A.    frame check sequence
B.    source address
C.    EtherType
D.    destination address

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 236
If you attempt to enable 802.1x for an EtherChannel port, what happens?

A.    An error occurs, because 802.1x is not supported on EtherChannel.
B.    The 802.1x authentication is extended to all of the ports in the EtherChannel bundle.
C.    An error occurs, but 802.1x is enabled for the EtherChannel bundle.
D.    All of the ports are removed from the EtherChannel bundle.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 237
An engineer wants to ensure that an interface goes into the error disable state immediately when a violation is detected on port. Which command must be used to accomplish this requirement?

A.    switchport port-security violation disable
B.    switchport port-security violation shutdown
C.    switchport port-security violation restrict
D.    switchport port-security violation protect

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 238
Which statement is true when using VRF?

A.    Overlapping IP addresses can be used without conflict.
B.    Multiple instances of a routing table cannot coexist on the same router.
C.    Routing instances must not contain overlapping address space.
D.    Two interfaces on the same router cannot be configured with the same IP address.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 239
Which routing protocol marks redistributed routes as external?

A.    EIGRP
B.    RIPng
C.    RIPv2
D.    BGP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 240
Which statement regarding the GRE protocol is true?

A.    It uses IP protocol 50.
B.    It provides encryption.
C.    It is the default mode for tunnels.
D.    It can transport unicast traffic only.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 241
Which OSPF router handles distribution between OSPF and another routing protocol such as EIGRP or BGP?

A.    autonomous system border router
B.    area border router
C.    designated router
D.    border gateway router

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 242
Which two features were introduced in ICMP version 6? (Choose two.)

A.    error reporting
B.    neighbor discovery
C.    signaling
D.    round trip estimates
E.    router discovery

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 243
Which two values must you configure when you enable a DHCP server on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.    inside and outside NAT interfaces
B.    client DNS domain name
C.    default gateway
D.    router ID
E.    VLAN assignment

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 244
Which two statement about A records and AAAA records in DNS are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A records can be returned in IPv6 packets only.
B.    AAAA records can be returned in IPv6 packets only.
C.    AAAA records can be returned in either IPv4 packets or IPv6 packets.
D.    A records can be returned in either IPv4 packets or IPv6 packets.
E.    A records and AAAA records can be used interchangeable.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 245
Which two DSL technologies are symmetrical? (Choose two.)

A.    HDSL
B.    SDSL
C.    VDSL
D.    RADSL
E.    ADSL

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 246
Which statement about how data is transmitted in a GPON environment is true?

A.    Nodes provide optical to electrical conversion between the OLT and the ONTs.
B.    Optical splitters are used to separate wavelengths assigned to different ONTs.
C.    Each ONT receives the traffic intended for all ONTs on the same PON.
D.    The OLT sends traffic to specific ONTs based on an assigned timeslot.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 247
Which three layers comprise the SONET transport hierarchy? (Choose three.)

A.    line layer
B.    path layer
C.    section layer
D.    data-link layer
E.    application layer
F.    network layer

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 248
In which DWDM network topology does protected traffic travel only between two hub nodes?

A.    any-to-any ring
B.    hubbeed ring
C.    multihubbed ring
D.    meshed ring

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 249
On a service provider network, which device functions as an aggregation point for CPE devices?

A.    a P router
B.    a CE router
C.    a PE router
D.    a CE switch

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 250
A network engineer is asked to protect the PE routers by configuring Control Plane Policing. How does this work?

A.    It encrypts packets before transmitting them across a network.
B.    It prevents network data interception.
C.    It prevents unauthorized access into networking devices.
D.    It prevents and protects the control plane of Cisco IOS routers and switches against reconnaissance and denial-of-service (DoS) attacks.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 251
Which two statements regarding router ACLs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They can restrict and block unwanted access to Cisco IOS services.
B.    They have no effect on router resources.
C.    They can be defined as standard, extended, or optional access lists.
D.    They can protect the router processor from unnecessary traffic, to maintain performance.
E.    They cannot be used to prevent DoS attacks.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 252
For which two reasons would an engineer configure neighbor authentications? (Choose two.)

A.    The neighbor requires authentication.
B.    Routing update packets are being rejected.
C.    The router could receive false routing information.
D.    To maintain link stability.
E.    Changes to the routing infrastructure are being made.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 253
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct data communications networks on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 254
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the network layers from the left onto their most common function on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 255
You have a switch that is configured to send messages to a syslog server. What should you do to log debugging information to syslog?

A.    Set the logging trap to 0.
B.    Set the logging trap to 7.
C.    Set the logging facility to 16.
D.    Set the logging facility to 61.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 256
Which command provides the highest level of detail about the system diagnostics on a Cisco XE router?

A.    show tech-support
B.    show registry
C.    show running-config
D.    show inventory

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 257
Which CLI command works for Cisco IOS and Cisco IOS XR Software configuration?

A.    boot system
B.    enable
C.    ip subnet-zero
D.    snmp-server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 258
An engineer must collect information about the cards installed in a Cisco routing running Cisco IOS XE Software. Which command can the engineer use to collect this information?

A.    show startup-config
B.    show diag
C.    show version
D.    show running-config

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 259
An engineer must set up a password to be used for privilege exec mode and wants the password to be stored in the most secure method. Which command must the engineer use?

A.    username support password cisco
B.    enable password cisco
C.    username support secret cisco
D.    enable secret cisco

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 260
An engineer wants to display the combined content of the target and running configurations without commiting the changes in a Cisco IOS XR Router. Which command accomplishes this task?

A.    show configuration
B.    show running-config sanitized
C.    show running-config
D.    show configuration merge

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 261
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NEW QUESTION 53
You have a Windows 10 computer that is part of a workgroup. To share the C:\Work folder from the computer and make it available to offline users, you need to use the public share option. (Review the underlined text, if it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    advanced
C.    HomeGroup
D.    basic

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.digitalcitizen.life/how-customize-your-advanced-network-sharing-settings-windows-81

NEW QUESTION 54
You perform a bare metal installation of Microsoft Windows 10 Enterprise on a new computer. The computer has a single 1 TB hard disk that you configure as a single partition. Which file system should you use to format the disk partition?

A.    NTFS
B.    ReFS
C.    FAT32
D.    exFAT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 55
Your sister is taking a video editing class at school. She purchased a 2 TB USB hard drive to store video files. She wants to connect it to her Windows 10 computer at home. Video file will exceed 5 GB in size. You need to prepare the new hard drive by formatting it with the appropriate file system. Which file system should you choose?

A.    FAT
B.    HFS
C.    NTFS
D.    FAT32

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/windows_7-files/what-is-the-maximum-file-size-fat-fat32-ntfs-file/1663db6b-490e-4021-9e36-f7a6976ac0c0

NEW QUESTION 56
Which file system format has been adopted by the computer industry as the standard for optical media?

A.    ExFAT
B.    FAT16
C.    ReFS
D.    UDF

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_Disk_Format

NEW QUESTION 57
Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. The company has an Azure AD premium subscription. You need to configure file access and storage to meet the following requirements:
– Users can access files from any location with any managed devices without connecting to the corporate network.
– Users can access local copies of files when they are not connected to the Internet.
– Files will sync automatically when connected to the Internet.
What should you configure?

A.    Work Folders
B.    Offline folders
C.    Company Portal
D.    RemoteApp

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/work-folders/work-folders-overview

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to create an Azure storage account through Azure Storage Services to support an Azure Windows virtual machine (VM). You want to keep subscription costs to a minimum. What type of storage account should you create?

A.    Standard storage performance tier.
B.    Blob cool access tier.
C.    Premium storage performance tier.
D.    Blob hot access tier.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.petri.com/choosing-azure-storage-account-type
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-introduction

NEW QUESTION 59
Computer worms are different from other types of malware or spyware because they propagate only when the infected files are copied. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    masquerade as valid files or utility
C.    are embedded as macros in data files
D.    can self-replicate

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.malwarefox.com/malware-types/#tab-con-6

NEW QUESTION 60
You are setting up your home network. All devices on your home network connect through a wireless access point. To share media files between your computer running Windows 10 and your video game system, you should create a public network. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    an extranet
C.    a VPN connection
D.    a private network

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.howtogeek.com/245982/WHATS-THE-DIFFERENCE-BETWEEN-PRIVATE-AND-PUBLIC-NETWORKS-IN-WINDOWS/

NEW QUESTION 61
When you copy a file from one NTFS file system partition to a different NTFS partition, what happens to the file permissions of the copied file?

A.    They are the combined permissions of the original file and destination folder.
B.    They inherit the permissions of the destination folder.
C.    They remain the same as the original.
D.    They most restrictive permissions are applied.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/320246/inherited-permissions-are-not-automatically-updated-when-you-move-fold

NEW QUESTION 62
You are personalizing the Start screen on a Windows 10 computer. To create a new group of tiles on the Start Screen, select a tile and press F12. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    access Settings > Personalize > Start
C.    right-click a tile and close Add to new group
D.    drag a tile to the far-right side of the Start screen and drop it

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 63
Which two Windows 10 tools can be used to perform BitLocker encryption? (Choose two.)

A.    Manage-bde
B.    Disk Management
C.    Microsoft Management Console
D.    BitLocker control panel

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-basic-deployment
http://www.ilovefreesoftware.com/12/windows-10/enable-bitlocker-drive-encryption-windows-10.html

NEW QUESTION 64
Hotspot
You are trying to access a file in a folder that is located on a Windows 10 computer. You are accessing the file over the network from a second computer. You have the following permissions:
– NTFS: Full Control
– Share: Read Only
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.howtogeek.com/72718/how-to-understand-those-confusing-windows-7-fileshare-permissions/

NEW QUESTION 65
Drag and Drop
Match each type of malware to its definition. (To answer, drag the appropriate malware type from the column on the left to the definition on the right. Each malware type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.malwarefox.com/malware-types/#tab-con-6

NEW QUESTION 66
Windows Server Active Directory enables single sign-on without the need for additional services, which simplifies user access to thousands of cloud applications on Windows, Mac, and iOS devices. (Review the underlined text, if it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    Microsoft Account
C.    Active Directory Federation Services
D.    Azure Active Directory

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure Active Directory is a comprehensive identity and access management cloud solution that provides a robust set of capabilities to manage users and groups. Azure Active Directory enables single sign-on to simplify user access to thousands of cloud applications from Windows, Mac, Android and iOS devices.
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/active-directory/

NEW QUESTION 67
Your company wants to implement file and document security for domain member clients and registered bring your own device (BYOD) devices. Administrators should be able to apply permissions based on well-defined rules, including the automatic classification of files. Policies need to be distributed through group policy. The solution should include auditing to support forensic analysis. What should you use?

A.    Software Restriction Policies
B.    Active Directory Federated Services
C.    Dynamic Access Control
D.    Azure Rights Management

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/solution-guides/dynamic-access-control-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/solution-guides/dynamic-access-control–scenario-overview

NEW QUESTION 68
The OneDrive service is used to create a private, enterprise-based social network. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    Skype for Business
C.    Yammer
D.    Azure

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://products.office.com/en-za/yammer/yammer-overview

NEW QUESTION 69
Which Microsoft cloud service can perform virtual video conferences?

A.    Azure
B.    Intune
C.    Skype for Business
D.    OneDrive

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.skype.com/en/business/
https://www.lynda.com/SharePoint-tutorials/Microsoft-Cloud-Services-SharePoint-Online-OneDrive-Skype-Business-Online/618724-2.html

NEW QUESTION 70
You are tracking hardware and software inventory on various devices. You need to identify the requirements to support communication between the devices and the Microsoft Intune administrative console. Which device requirement must be met?

A.    All devices must be domain members.
B.    Windows computers must run Windows 8.1 or later.
C.    Microsoft Intune agent must be installed.
D.    All enrolled devices must be in the same organizational unit (OU).

Answer: C
Explanation:
The devices need the Microsoft Intune client installed. This software is also known as Microsoft Intune agent.

NEW QUESTION 71
……

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NEW QUESTION 120
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains one central site. The infrastructure contains a Standard Edition server that has the Mediation Server role installed and is located in the central site. You configure a trunk to an IP-PBX which is qualified for integration with Skype for Business. You have 300 users who are enabled for Enterprise Voice. You need to provide public switched telephone network (PSTN) services to the Enterprise Voice users if the IP-PBX fails. What should you do?

A.    Install a Survivable Branch server that connects directly to the PSTN.
Configure a new trunk and add the trunk to the existing route.
Add the route to the PSTN usage and add the PSTN usage to the voice policy.
B.    Install a PSTN gateway that connects directly to the PSTN.
Configure a new trunk to the new PSTN gateway.
Create a new route and a new PSTN usage.
Add the route to the PSTN usage and add the PSTN usage to the voice policy.
C.    Install an additional IP-PBX that connects directly to the PSTN.
Configure the existing trunk to use both IP-PBXs in resiliency mode.
D.    Install a new trunk to a certified SIP trunk provider.
Add the trunk to the existing PSTN usage.
Add the PSTN usage to the voice policy.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 121
You support a Skype for Business environment. You deploy System Center Operations Manager. You implement Enterprise Voice. Some users use a desktop phone to place and receive public switched telephone network (PSTN) calls with people outside of Skype for Business. Some of these users report intermittent connectivity issues with incoming and outgoing calls. You need to periodically confirm that users are able to place and receive calls with people outside of Skype for Business. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a watcher node and configure it for an extended, non-default synthetic transaction.
B.    In the synthetic transaction, run the Test-CsP2PAV Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
C.    In the synthetic transaction, run the Test-CsPstnPeerToPeerCall Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
D.    Create a watcher node and configure it for a default synthetic transaction.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj204943(v=ocs.15).aspx

NEW QUESTION 122
Litware, Inc. is an international air transportation company that has 700 employees. They use contractors for all back office functions. Litware, Inc. has an on-premises Skype for Business Server 2015 deployment used by all users. The company acquires a new Office 365 tenant and would like to move all non-permanent employees to Exchange Online. You need to ensure that users can access Outlook Voice Access and receive voice mails from callers. Which Skype for Business Management cmdlet should you run?

A.    New-CsSipProxyCustom
B.    New-CsSipDomain
C.    New-CsExUmContact
D.    New-CsVoicemailReroutingConfiguration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/new-csexumcontact?view=skype-ps

NEW QUESTION 123
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Server 2015 servers, an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain, and Microsoft Exchange 2013. All client computers have the Skype for Business client and Outlook 2016 installed. You deploy USB-tethered Skype for Business Phone Edition devices for a group of users. Users are able to access all dialing features, calendar, and contacts. Users report that the Call Logs feature is unavailable for them. You need to make Call Logs available to all users. What should you do?

A.    Configure the Exchange Unified Messaging server role to use the Exchange organization.
B.    Add an Exchange Autodiscover SRV record to the company DNS servers.
C.    Configure the Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only PIN authentication.
D.    Configure Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only client certificate authentication.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 124
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that has Enterprise Voice enabled. When a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears a custom message, and then the caller is forwarded to a user named User1. Several months later, User1 leaves the company. You need to ensure that when a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears the custom message and is forwarded to a user named User2. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-CsUnassignedNumber
B.    Set-CsUser
C.    Set-CsVoiceRoute
D.    Set-CsAnnouncement

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg425752.aspx

NEW QUESTION 125
A company has a main office and five branch offices located in different cities. You configure Skype for Business Enterprise Voice for the main office. You deploy a Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) at a branch office and connect it to a public switched telephone network (PSTN) by using a T1 trunk line. You configure the SBA voice gateway to use fully qualified domain names (FQDN). You test the branch isolation by disconnecting the wide area network (WAN) form the branch office and make an outbound call. The call was successful. Next, you make an inbound call to the branch office and the call fails. You perform the following troubleshooting steps:
– Trace the IncomingAndOutgoingCalls setting.
– Use Snooper to analyze logs.
– Review the syslog file form the SBA voice gateway.
You discover that messages are sent to the Skype for Business Mediation Server pool, but not received. You reconnect the WAN from the branch office and make an inbound call. The call is successful. You need to identify the configuration error that causes inbound calls to fail. What should you check?

A.    the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options for the branch DHCP server
B.    the route settings for the SBA voice gateway
C.    the status of the DNS services for the branch office domain controller
D.    the DNS settings for the SBA voice gateway

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 126
You have deployed Skype for Business Server 2015 in three locations, Boston, New York and Chicago. Users form the Boston location are reporting a delay in the audio stream during conferences and that the audio drops frequently. Users in the other two locations do not report the same issues. You need to recommend a solution to resolve the audio issues for the users in the Boston office. Which three possible recommendations should you include in the solution? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Call Admission Control (CAC)
B.    user services
C.    Quality of Service (QoS)
D.    a location policy
E.    a conferencing policy

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 127
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization and a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. You need to design a Unified Messaging (UM) solution to meet the following requirements:
– Support a peak concurrency of 500 calls.
– Connect to two Skype for Business Sever 2015 pools.
What is the minimum number of mailbox servers that are required?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    5

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 128
Your company has a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. All users are enabled for Enterprise Voice. All network components support the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP). A client computer named Computer1 runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a wireless network connection and a wired network connection. You need to locate Computer1. Which element should you use to locate Computer1?

A.    the Basic Service Set Identification (BSSID) address of the wireless access point (WAP)
B.    the IP subnet of the wireless network
C.    the LLDP switch port
D.    the MAC addresses of the wired network connection
E.    the LLDP switch chassis ID

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 129
Your company corporate telephony environment is a combination of Skype for Business Server 2015 and traditional Private Branch Exchange (PBX). The company has three sites that are connected by a Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) topology. There are 1,250 users who use Skype for Business Server 2015, and 2,250 users who use the PBX environment. On average, the company has three percent of its users dialing in for conferences and six percent on a public switched telephone network (PSTN) call at any time. The company plans to remove the PBXs and have all users use only Skype for Business Server 2015. You need to generate a usage model based on the existing data usage and real-time communications through all of the PBXs. Which two pieces of information should you collect when you perform usage modeling? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    number of PSTN channels provisioned
B.    number of calls that use G.722
C.    number of intersite calls through PSTN
D.    number of calls that use RTAudio Wideband
E.    number of peer-to-peer (P2P) calls over the MPLS network

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 130
You create a topology that includes Enterprise Voice. You configure the system to play a message when unassigned numbers are dialed. You need to add the voice announcements. Which two file formats can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    WAVE Audio File (WAV)
B.    MP3 Audio File (MP3)
C.    Windows Media Audio File (WMA)
D.    MPEG-2 Audio File (MPA)
E.    MPEG-4 Audio File (M4A)

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://greiginsydney.com/audio-file-formats-for-lync-and-exchange/

NEW QUESTION 131
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment. Users report significant delays in presence status updates as well as poor audio quality during normal business hours. Which two network metrics should you examine? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    average round trip
B.    average jitter
C.    average network MOS
D.    packet utilization
E.    average listening MOS

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/manage/health-and-monitoring/summary

NEW QUESTION 132
HotSpot
Your network has a perimeter network and an internal network. A firewall named Firewall1 separates the perimeter network from the Internet. A firewall named Firewall2 separates the internal network form the perimeter network. You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that contains an Edge Server and a reverse proxy server in the perimeter network. You plan to deploy extensible messaging and presence protocol (XMPP) federation. You need to create the firewall rules for the planned deployment. How should you configure each firewall? (To answer, configure the appropriate rules in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/edge-server-deployments/edge-environmental-requirements#PortFirewallPlan

NEW QUESTION 133
Drag and Drop
Trey Research currently leverages Exchange Online to provide voice mail capabilities for their existing IP- PBX. An Exchange Online Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan with type of E.164 Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) is currently in use. Skype for Business Server 2015 is already deployed and integrated with Exchange Online. Users can see presence in Outlook Web App and schedule Skype meetings from Outlook Web App. Trey Research is deploying Skype for Business Server 2015 Enterprise Voice and would like to retain voice mail capabilities in Exchange Online. You need to enable voice mail for Enterprise Voice users. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange the in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 134
You are planning a Skype for Business Server 2015 Edge Server deployment. You have nine public addresses for the planned deployment. You need to recommend an Edge Server deployment that meets the following requirements:
– A different public IP address must be assigned to each Edge service.
– Users must be able to sign in from a Skype for Business mobile client.
– Users must be able to communicate with partners who are enabled for XMPP.
– Remote users must be able to access conferences.
– Remote users must be able to access the Skype for Business Server infrastructure if an Edge Server fails.
What should you recommend?

A.    three Edge Servers that use hardware load balancing
B.    two Edge Servers that use hardware load balancing
C.    three Edge Servers that use DNS load balancing
D.    two Edge Servers that use DNS load balancing

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/network-requirements/load-balancing

NEW QUESTION 135
You support a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment that has Enterprise Voice (EV). The company has opened two new satellite branches and configured one with a Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) and the other with a Survivable Branch Server (SBS). Neither branch has a DNS server. A wide area network (WAN) outage occurs and EV stopped working for the branch users. You need to ensure that EV functionality continues in the event of WAN outages. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option 55 on the branch site’s DHCP server.
B.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option 120 on the branch site’s DHCP server to point to the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the SBA or SBS.
C.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option 60 on the branch site’s DHCP server.
D.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring the SBA or SBS to respond to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) 120 queries.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/lyncserver/lync-server-2013-branch-site-resiliency-requirements

NEW QUESTION 136
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment. You deploy the Edge server to the perimeter network. Users cannot connect to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. You need to identify the problem that is preventing the users from connecting to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. Which two utilities should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
B.    Network Configuration Viewer
C.    The Debug-CsLisConfiguration cmdlet
D.    Microsoft Lync Connectivity Analyzer

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 137
……

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NEW QUESTION 117
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Standard deployed with an Edge Server that is connected to the Internet. All users have Skype for Business Mobile installed on their Windows phones. Users report that they receive instant messages only when the Skype for Business Mobile app is active in the foreground. You need to ensure that mobile users are able to receive instant messages at all the times. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Enable Push Notifications and Federation from the Skype for Business Server Management Shell.
B.    Set up hosting provider federation between your organization and the Push Notification Service at Skype for Business Online.
C.    Upgrade the Lync 2010 Mobile add on the Windows mobile devices.
D.    Install the Skype for Business Mobility components on the Edge Server.
E.    Open port 5223/TCP outbound on the company firewall.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-and-configure-mobility#ConfigPush

NEW QUESTION 118
You have a Skype for business Server 2015 environment. You must implement support resources for users of the Skype for Business conferencing feature. You need to ensure that the users can access the help and support resources by clicking a URL from a meeting invitation. What should you do?

A.    From the Skype for Business Control Panel, modify the conferencing policy settings.
B.    Run the following Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet: Set-CsMeetingRoom.
C.    From the Skype for Business Control Panel, modify the meeting configuration settings.
D.    Run the following Skype Management Shell cmdlet: Set-CsConferenceDiscLaimer.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/manage/conferencing/conferencing

NEW QUESTION 119
A company deploys Skype for Business Server 2015 and has 65,000 users. The infrastructure includes two paired Front End pools named Pool01 and Pool02. Meeting content is stored on Pool01. The servers that run Pool01 suffer a catastrophic failure. You take the following steps:
– Failover users to Pool2.
– Correct the failure on Pool01.
– Failback the users to Pool01.
You need to immediately restore meeting content for users. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet or cmdlets should you run?

A.    Test-CsDatabase cmdlet, and then Get-CsUserDatabaseState PowerShell cmdlet.
B.    Invoke-CsBackupServiceSync PowerShell cmdlet.
C.    Invoke-CsPoolFailover PowerShell cmdlet.
D.    Get-CsDatabaseMirrorState cmdlet, and then Invoke-CSManagementServerFailover PowerShell cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/invoke-csmanagementserverfailover?view=skype-ps

NEW QUESTION 120
Litware, Inc. is an international air transportation company that has 700 employees. They use contractors for all back office functions. Litware, Inc. has an on-premises Skype for Business Server 2015 deployment used by all users. The company acquires a new Office 365 tenant and would like to move all non-permanent employees to Exchange Online. You need to ensure that users can access Outlook Voice Access and receive voice mails from callers. Which Skype for Business Management cmdlet should you run?

A.    New-CsSipProxyCustom
B.    New-CsSipDomain
C.    New-CsExUmContact
D.    New-CsVoicemailReroutingConfiguration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/new-csexumcontact?view=skype-ps

NEW QUESTION 121
Drag and Drop
You need to implement the federation capabilities that are required for users in the sales and marketing departments. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets should you run? (To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the answer area. Each command may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-skype-connectivity

NEW QUESTION 122
HotSpot
You need to recommend the topology for the solution. How many additional instances of each type of component should you deploy? (To answer, select the appropriate number of additional Edge Servers, federation routes, SIP domains, and sites in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 123
Fabrikam, Inc, changes their Access Edge fully qualified domain name (FQDN). This resulted in a broken federation relationship. You need to correct the issue and reduce further administrative overhead. What should you do?

A.    Modify the SRV record_sipfederationtls._tcp.adatum.com to point to the new Fabrikam Access Edge FQDN on port TCP/5061.
B.    Modify the federation configuration to enable Open Federation.
C.    Allow outbound connection on port TCP/5061 from Edge Server to any IP address on the Internet.
D.    Modify the SRV record_sipfederationtls._tcp.wideworldimporters.com to point to the new Fabrikam Access Edge FQDN on port TCP/5061.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 124
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Server 2015 servers, an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain, and Microsoft Exchange 2013. All client computers have the Skype for Business client and Outlook 2016 installed. You deploy USB-tethered Skype for Business Phone Edition devices for a group of users. Users are able to access all dialing features, calendar, and contacts. Users report that the Call Logs feature is unavailable for them. You need to make Call Logs available to all users. What should you do?

A.    Configure the Exchange Unified Messaging server role to use the Exchange organization.
B.    Add an Exchange Autodiscover SRV record to the company DNS servers.
C.    Configure the Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only PIN authentication.
D.    Configure Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only client certificate authentication.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 125
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment. You deploy the Edge server to the perimeter network. Users cannot connect to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. You need to identify the problem that is preventing the users from connecting to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. Which two utilities should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
B.    Network Configuration Viewer
C.    The Debug-CsLisConfiguration cmdlet
D.    Microsoft Lync Connectivity Analyzer

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 126
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that has Enterprise Voice enabled. When a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears a custom message, and then the caller is forwarded to a user named User1. Several months later, User1 leaves the company. You need to ensure that when a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears the custom message and is forwarded to a user named User2. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-CsUnassignedNumber
B.    Set-CsUser
C.    Set-CsVoiceRoute
D.    Set-CsAnnouncement

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg425752.aspx

NEW QUESTION 127
A company has a main office and five branch offices located in different cities. You configure Skype for Business Enterprise Voice for the main office. You deploy a Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) at a branch office and connect it to a public switched telephone network (PSTN) by using a T1 trunk line. You configure the SBA voice gateway to use fully qualified domain names (FQDN). You test the branch isolation by disconnecting the wide area network (WAN) form the branch office and make an outbound call. The call was successful. Next, you make an inbound call to the branch office and the call fails. You perform the following troubleshooting steps:
– Trace the IncomingAndOutgoingCalls setting.
– Use Snooper to analyze logs.
– Review the syslog file form the SBA voice gateway.
You discover that messages are sent to the Skype for Business Mediation Server pool, but not received. You reconnect the WAN from the branch office and make an inbound call. The call is successful. You need to identify the configuration error that causes inbound calls to fail. What should you check?

A.    the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options for the branch DHCP server
B.    the route settings for the SBA voice gateway
C.    the status of the DNS services for the branch office domain controller
D.    the DNS settings for the SBA voice gateway

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 128
You have deployed Skype for Business Server 2015 in three locations, Boston, New York and Chicago. Users form the Boston location are reporting a delay in the audio stream during conferences and that the audio drops frequently. Users in the other two locations do not report the same issues. You need to recommend a solution to resolve the audio issues for the users in the Boston office. Which three possible recommendations should you include in the solution? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Call Admission Control (CAC)
B.    user services
C.    Quality of Service (QoS)
D.    a location policy
E.    a conferencing policy

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 129
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
What is a feature of Cisco Hybrid Email Security?

A.    Cisco Registered Envelope Service.
B.    Layer 4 traffic monitoring.
C.    Application visibility and control.
D.    Roaming user protection.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco AMP for Web security are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It compares unknown files to a local threat repository.
B.    It can perform file analysis by sandboxing suspected malware.
C.    It can block critical files from existing through the web gateway.
D.    it can detect and malware before it passes through the web gateway.
E.    It continues monitoring files after they pass the web gateway.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two Cisco ASA commands show if traffic is being redirected to the Cisco Firepower module? (Choose two.)

A.    show module sfr
B.    show service-policy sfr
C.    show service-policy
D.    show module sfr detail
E.    show service-policy inspect scansafe

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 4
A network engineer is configuring URL Filtering on the Cisco ASA with Firewall services. Which two port requirements on the Firepower Management Center must be validated to allow communication with the cloud service? (Choose two.)

A.    outbound port TCP/443
B.    inbound port TCP/80
C.    inbound port TCP/443
D.    outbound port TCP/80
E.    bidirectional port TCP/443

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 5
Which description of the Cisco ASA Connector in a Cisco CWS solution is true?

A.    enables the ASA to download information from CWS
B.    deploys a VPN connection to the CWS cloud
C.    permits the IP addresses required by CWS in the ASA access policy
D.    securely redirects specified traffic to the CWS cloud for inspection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
What is a purpose of the network analysis policy on a Cisco Firepower NGIPS?

A.    it defines the rules for encrypting traffic
B.    it governs how traffic is preprocessed before inspection
C.    it examines packets for attacks by using intrusion rules
D.    it specifies the outer-header criteria used to process traffic without using advanced inspection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
An engineer must evaluate the security gaps with their current WSA. What additional protection does AMP offer for WSA?

A.    point in time detection
B.    roaming user protection
C.    data loss prevention
D.    restricted bandwidth

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two software can be installed on a Cisco ASA-5585-X appliance, assuming the proper hardware is also installed?

A.    Cisco Firepower Services
B.    Cisco ASAv
C.    Cisco ASA
D.    CiSco Firepower Appliance
E.    Cisco Firepower Management Center

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two field can be used to create a new email alert within the Cisco Firepower Management center under Policies > Actions > Alerts tab? (Choose two.)

A.    Device
B.    Source
C.    Destination
D.    From
E.    Relay Host

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 10
Which description of a correlation policy configuration in the Cisco Firepower Management Center is true?

A.    Correlation policy priorities override whitelist priorities.
B.    The system displays correlation policies that are created on all of the domains in a multidomain deployment.
C.    You cannot add a host profile qualification to a correlation rule that is triggered by a malware event.
D.    Deleting a response group deletes the responses of that group.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
What are two analysis method of file inspection on Network-based Cisco Advanced Malware Protection? (Choose two.)

A.    Spero analysis
B.    Network analysis
C.    User analysis
D.    Dynamic analysis
E.    Intrusion analysis

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 12
In the Predefined URL Category Filtering configuration page on a Cisco WSA, which two actions are valid? (Choose two.)

A.    notification
B.    time-based
C.    quarantine
D.    restrict
E.    block

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 13
Which statement about decrypting traffic on the Cisco Firepower Appliance is true?

A.    The Decrypt-Resign option cannot be used with a local PKI.
B.    Using the Decrypt-Known Key option requires that you upload the public/private key pair from servers to the appliance.
C.    The Decrypt-Known Key option requires only that the public key be uploaded to the appliance.
D.    The Decrypt-Resign option can be used with a well-known/public PKI.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 14
When you view a FireAMP Analysis Overview to mitigate a malware issue, where do you look for information about sites from Which the malware attempted to download additional files?

A.    Startup section
B.    Dropped Files section
C.    Threat Root Cause section
D.    Involved IP Addresses section

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
you are troubleshooting the proxy connections going through a Cisco WSA. Which CLI tool do you use to monitor a log file in real time?

A.    grep
B.    nslookup
C.    dig
D.    tail

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

A.    Configure the datasecurityconfig command.
B.    Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand.
C.    Configure a small log-entry size.
D.    Configure a maximum packet size.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
Which two descriptions of a Cisco Firepower NGIPS deployment that uses an inline Pair Interface in tap mode are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Transit traffic can be features are available.
B.    All the Cisco ASA engine features are available.
C.    Two physical interfaces are bridged inter really.
D.    The deployment is available in transparent mode only.
E.    More than two interfaces can be bridged.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 18
Which SSL decryption policy can be used to protect HTTPS servers from external traffic?

A.    Decrypt Re-sign
B.    Block
C.    Decrypt Known Key
D.    Enable SSL Decryption

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy Microsoft Exchange Server 2019. You need to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared for the deployment. What are two methods to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Use ADSI Edit.
B.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer cmdlet.
C.    Review the Exchange.Setup log.
D.    Run the Get-ADForest cmdlet.
E.    Run the dcdiag.exe command.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/prepare-ad-and-domains?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 2
You are deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 to two data centers. You need to protect all mailbox content against database corruption. The solution must minimize the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO). What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    A recovery database.
B.    A lagged database copy.
C.    PST files.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company has two offices. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. You need to recommend a plan for the deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 servers. The plan must ensure that a copy of each sent email message is always retained in a shadow queue.
Solution: You recommend deploying two standalone servers. Each server will be in a different site. Both servers will be in the same domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-high-availability/shadow-redundancy?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors. EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company’s perimeter network. The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery. You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1.
Solution: You modify the remote IP address ranges of the default frontend Receive connector.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/connectors/receive-connectors?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains a Mailbox server named EX01. EX01 fails and must be replaced. You plan to recover EX01 to a new server. You deploy Windows Server 2019 to a new server that has identical hardware as EX01. You need to restore EX01 to the new server. What should you do before you restore EX01?

A.    Join EX01 to the domain.
B.    Reset the computer account of EX01.
C.    Create a new computer account for EX01.
D.    Rename the computer account of EX01.
E.    Register a service principal name (SPN).

Answer: B
Explanation:
Before you restore EX01 to the new server you must reset the computer account for EX01 and then join it to the domain.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/high-availability/disaster-recovery/recover-exchange-servers?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 6
You manage a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has 3,000 users. Each user has a company-provided mobile device that uses Exchange ActiveSync. You discover that devices running a specific operating system version contain a bug that causes the excessive consumption of resources on the exchange servers. You need to prevent the devices from accessing email until the devices are updated. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-ActiveSyncDeviceAutoblockThreshold
B.    Set-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy
C.    New-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule
D.    Set-CasMailbox

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/devices/new-activesyncdeviceaccessrule?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server named MBX01. You back up MBX01 by using Windows Server Backup. You need to recover a deleted mailbox. The solution must minimize the impact on other mailboxes. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/high-availability/disaster-recovery/restore-data-using-recovery-dbs?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a shared mailbox named Inquiries. You need to configure inquiries to meet the following requirements:
– A user named User1 must have full access to the mailbox without having permissions to send email messages.
– A user named User2 must be able to send email messages that appear to come from the mailbox.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 has three member servers in each site. You need to prevent users from Site1 from sending email messages larger than 5 MB to the mailboxes in Site2. What should you do?

A.    Modify the properties of the Active Directory site link.
B.    From Site1, create a custom Send connector, and then modify the address space.
C.    From Site2, create a custom Receive connector, and then modify the remote IP address range.
D.    Modify the properties of DAG1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users report today that they cannot access email from their mobile device. They successfully accessed their email from the same device yesterday. You need to identify which mobile device access rule applies to the devices. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Get-MsolDevice
B.    Get-ActiveSyncMailboxPolicy
C.    Get-ActiveSyncDeviceClass
D.    Get-MobileDevice

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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Litware, Inc. is an international manufacturing company that has 3,000 employees. The company has sales, marketing, research, and human resources (HR) departments. The company is subject to regulatory compliance. Litware has a main office in New York and two branch offices in London and Paris. All offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The offices can only communicate with each other by using a point-to-point connection. Each office also connects directly to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Remove-MobileDevice
B.    Clear-MobileDevice
C.    Clear-Content
D.    Remove-ActiveSyncDevice

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A.    Create a recovery database on another exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database.
B.    On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C.    Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D.    On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to implement the required changes to the current exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Set up directory synchronization.
B.    Create a remote domain.
C.    Configure an email address policy.
D.    Configure an external relay accepted domain.
E.    Configure an internal relay accepted domain.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a company that has retail stores throughout Europe and North America. Contoso has 5,000 employees worldwide. Contoso has a main office in London. The company has 10 branch offices. In each office, there are 50 managers. There are 100 retail stores in Europe and North America. Each retail store has between five and 20 employees. Contoso has a data center in each office. All the offices connect to each other by using redundant WAN links. Each office has a high-speed connection to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers?

A.    a separate exchange server
B.    a separate mailbox database
C.    an audit policy
D.    a transport agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to recommend a load balancing solution for the client connections that must be created to meet the disaster recovery requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Deploy a Layer 7 load balancing solution.
B.    Deploy a Layer 4 load balancing solution.
C.    Implement Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each exchange server.
D.    Implement DNS load balancing for all the Exchange-related DNS records and implement round robin for DNS name resolution.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/client-access/load-balancing?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to implement a routing solution that meets the technical requirements. What should you do?

A.    In each office, create a scoped send connector.
B.    Create an SMTP site link for each office.
C.    Configure the main office as an Active Directory hub site.
D.    Create 10 accepted domains.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 59
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes. You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to Exchange Online. You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs. Which licenses should you identify?

A.    Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users.
B.    Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users.
C.    Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users.
D.    An Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/active-directory-whatis

NEW QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online. You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories. Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    RPC
B.    EWS
C.    PowerShell
D.    ECP
E.    MAPI
F.    Autodiscover

Answer: EF
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication

NEW QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and configure Active Directory synchronization. You use a smart host for all communication between the organization and the Internet. The smart host performs email hygiene and alters message headers. You plan to run the Hybrid Configuration wizard to create an Exchange hybrid deployment and change the MX record to point to Exchange Online. You need to decommission the smart host from the organization. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the InternalSmtpServer value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
B.    Modify the Send connector to use DNS delivery.
C.    Modify the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
D.    Create a Receive connector that allows anonymous authentication.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mail-flow/set-transportconfig?view=exchangeps

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users.
Solution: You create a new safe links policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://blog.netwrix.com/2019/01/24/make-the-most-of-exchange-online-advanced-threat-protection/

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users.
Solution: You modify the content filtering settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/content-filtering-procedures?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You deploy a new mailbox server named EX01. You need to ensure that EX01 can perform content filtering and sender filtering. What should you run first?

A.    Install-UnifiedCompliancePrequisite
B.    Set-transportAgent
C.    Install-AntiSpamAgents.ps1
D.    Set-MailboxJunkEmailConfiguration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/antispam-on-mailbox-servers?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER. You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync connection. How should you complete the PowerShell script? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-and-performance/new-throttlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-and-performance/set-throttlingpolicyassociation?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You are migrating mailboxes from the on-premises organization to Exchange Online. From the Exchange admin center, you create a new migration batch that includes 25 mailboxes, and then select Manual Complete the batch. Later, you must complete the migration of a mailbox named user1@litware.com in the batch as soon as possible. You discover that the status of the migration batch is Syncing, but the status of the move request for user1@litware.com is Synced. You need to complete the migration of the user1@litware.com mailbox to Exchange Online as soon as possible. How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/move-and-migration/set-moverequest?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of any potential breaches before sending email. What should you create?

A.    a journal rule
B.    a retention policy
C.    a retention tag
D.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains mailbox servers in four Active Directory sites. The organization contains 35,000 user mailboxes. The network bandwidth between the sites is limited. Users frequently travel between the sites. You need to ensure the users download the offline address book (OAB) from a local server. What should you do?

A.    Create an arbitration mailbox in each site and configure shadow copies of the OAB.
B.    Modify the OAB virtual directories on the Exchange servers in each site to use unique URLs.
C.    Place the arbitration mailbox of the OAB in a database that replicates between the sites by using a database availability groups (DAG).
D.    Create a separate OAB and arbitration mailbox in each site.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/offline-address-books/offline-address-books?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc.
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office.
B.    Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office.
C.    Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users.
D.    Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned changes. What should you recommend?

A.    Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B.    Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C.    Increase the frequency of the backups.
D.    Modify the public folder permissions.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigation-holds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to recommend a procedure for closing the Brussels office that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    In the main office, deploy an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new server.
B.    Deploy a Microsoft Skype for Business 2019 server to the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office.
C.    Implement a new mailbox database on an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new mailbox database.
D.    Implement a new database availability group (DAG) that contains the server in the Brussels office and a new Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then create a mailbox database copy on the new server in the main office.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/mailbox-servers/manage-mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
https://theitbros.com/move-exchange-mailboxes-to-another-database/

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed.
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that supports the planned changes and meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B.    Office 365 groups
C.    Resource mailboxes
D.    Public folder replicas

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-office-365-groups?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy.
C.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy.
D.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing

NEW QUESTION 58
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You deploy a new Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server in each site. You need to configure the organization to use a single namespace for Autodiscover. What should you do?

A.    Create an SRV record named Autodiscover.
B.    Create a TXT record named Autodiscover.
C.    Run the Set-ClientAccessService cmdlet.
D.    Run the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company has two offices. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. You need to recommend a plan for the deployment of Microsoft Exchnage Server 2019 servers. The plan must ensure that a copy of each sent email message is always retained in a shadow queue.
Solution: You recommend deploying a database availability group (DAG) that will contain two servers. Each server will be in a different site. Both servers will be in the same domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-high-availability/shadow-redundancy?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company has two offices. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. You need to recommend a plan for the deployment of Microsoft Exchnage Server 2019 servers. The plan must ensure that a copy of each sent email message is always retained in a shadow queue.
Solution: You recommend deploying a standalone server to each site. Each server will be in a different domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-high-availability/shadow-redundancy?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. Ten days ago, a user named User1 sent an email message to a user named User2. User2 never received the message. You need to identify whether the message was delivered to User2. What should you run from Exchange Management Shell?

A.    Get-MessageTraceDetail
B.    Search-MessageTrackingReport
C.    Get-MessageTrackingReport
D.    Get-MessageTrace

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mail-flow/get-messagetrackingreport?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. The company purchases five portable projectors for its sales department. You need to enable the users in the sales department to reserve the projectors by using their calendar in Exchange. What is the best type of recipient to use to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    a user mailbox
B.    a distribution group
C.    a shared mailbox
D.    a resource mailbox

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You purchase an Exchange Online subscription. You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment that supports the following features:
– Federated sharing of free/busy information.
– Single-sign on (SSO) access to both on-premises and Exchange Online mailboxes.
– Secured access to mailboxes by using Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policies.
– A unified global address list (GAL) that contains all the mailboxes in the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
You plan to run the Microsoft Office 365 Hybrid Configuration wizard. You are evaluating whether to use Exchange Classic Hybrid or Exchange Modern Hybrid. Which requirement can only be met by using the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option?

A.    the federated sharing of free/busy information between organizations
B.    SSO access to both on-premises and Exchange Online mailboxes
C.    a unified GAL list that contains all the mailboxes in the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations
D.    secured access to mailboxes by using Azure AD conditional access policies

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/hybrid-deployment/hybrid-agent

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
Your company named ADatum Corporation has a Microsoft 365 subscription. ADatum acquires a company named Contoso, Ltd. In the subscription, you create a new mailbox for each user at Contoso. You need to provide the Contoso users with a global address list (GAL) that contains only their email addresses. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/address-books/address-lists/create-global-address-list
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/address-lists/address-lists?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You have three Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 servers named MBX01, MBX02, and MBX03 in a database availability group (DAG) named DAG01. You have a single mailbox database named MDB01 that replicates to all the servers. All users report that mailbox searches from Outlook on the web return no results. You discover that the mailbox content index on MBX02 has failed. You need to ensure that all the users can search mailboxes successfully by using Outlook on the web. The solution must resolve the issue as quickly as possible. How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/database-availability-groups/update-mailboxdatabasecopy?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You are migrating public folder data to Exchange Online by using a migration batch of the PublicFolder type. You need to identify the sync of each move request in the batch. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Get-PublicFolderMailboxMigrationRequests
B.    Get-MoveRequest
C.    Get-PublicFolderMoveRequest
D.    Get-PublicFolderMigrationRequest

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-exchange-online?view=exchserver-2019
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/move-and-migration/get-publicfoldermoverequest?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to enable journaling for external email messages only. You need to ensure that journal reports are delivered if the journal mailbox is offline. What should you do?

A.    Create a new journal rule.
B.    Run Set-TransportService and extend MessageExpirationTimeout.
C.    Edit the journal rule to include all messages.
D.    Specify an alternative journaling mailbox.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/journaling/configure-journaling

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc. (A)
Litware, Inc. is an international manufacturing company that has 3,000 employees. The company has sales, marketing, research, and human resources (HR) departments. The company is subject to regulatory compliance. Litware has a main office in New York and two branch offices in London and Paris. All offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The offices can only communicate with each other by using a point-to-point connection. Each office also connects directly to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 101
You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Remove-MobileDevice
B.    Clear-MobileDevice
C.    Clear-Content
D.    Remove-ActiveSyncDevice

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 102
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A.    Create a recovery database on another exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database.
B.    On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C.    Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D.    On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
You need to implement the required changes to the current exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Set up directory synchronization.
B.    Create a remote domain.
C.    Configure an email address policy.
D.    Configure an external relay accepted domain.
E.    Configure an internal relay accepted domain.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 104
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd. (A)
Contoso, Ltd. is a company that has retail stores throughout Europe and North America. Contoso has 5,000 employees worldwide. Contoso has a main office in London. The company has 10 branch offices. In each office, there are 50 managers. There are 100 retail stores in Europe and North America. Each retail store has between five and 20 employees. Contoso has a data center in each office. All the offices connect to each other by using redundant WAN links. Each office has a high-speed connection to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 107
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers?

A.    a separate exchange server
B.    a separate mailbox database
C.    an audit policy
D.    a transport agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 108
You need to recommend a load balancing solution for the client connections that must be created to meet the disaster recovery requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Deploy a Layer 7 load balancing solution.
B.    Deploy a Layer 4 load balancing solution.
C.    Implement Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each exchange server.
D.    Implement DNS load balancing for all the Exchange-related DNS records and implement round robin for DNS name resolution.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/client-access/load-balancing?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 109
You need to implement a routing solution that meets the technical requirements. What should you do?

A.    In each office, create a scoped send connector.
B.    Create an SMTP site link for each office.
C.    Configure the main office as an Active Directory hub site.
D.    Create 10 accepted domains.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 110
……

Case Study 3 – Litware, Inc. (B)
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office.
……

NEW QUESTION 112
You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office.
B.    Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office.
C.    Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users.
D.    Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 113
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned changes. What should you recommend?

A.    Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B.    Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C.    Increase the frequency of the backups.
D.    Modify the public folder permissions.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigation-holds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

NEW QUESTION 114
You need to recommend a procedure for closing the Brussels office that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    In the main office, deploy an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new server.
B.    Deploy a Microsoft Skype for Business 2019 server to the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office.
C.    Implement a new mailbox database on an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new mailbox database.
D.    Implement a new database availability group (DAG) that contains the server in the Brussels office and a new Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then create a mailbox database copy on the new server in the main office.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/mailbox-servers/manage-mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
https://theitbros.com/move-exchange-mailboxes-to-another-database/

NEW QUESTION 115
……

Case Study 4 – Contoso, Ltd. (B)
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed.
……

NEW QUESTION 118
You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that supports the planned changes and meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B.    Office 365 groups
C.    Resource mailboxes
D.    Public folder replicas

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-office-365-groups?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 119
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy.
C.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy.
D.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing

NEW QUESTION 120
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NEW QUESTION 1
While using HSRP, if you see the active state of the devices constantly changing, which parameter may need to be adjusted?

A.    delay
B.    hold time
C.    priority
D.    standby group

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
Which two prerequisites for BFD are true? (Choose two.)

A.    For Layer 3 port channels used by BFD, you must enable LACP on the port channel.
B.    Install NETWORK_SERVICE_PKG license.
C.    Disable the IP packet verification check for identical IP source and destination addresses.
D.    Enabled ICMP redirect messages on BFD-enabled interfaces.
E.    For Layer 2 port channels used by BFD, you must disable LACP on the port channel.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 3
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connectivity?

A.    Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch.
B.    Endpoints must be in different bridge domains.
C.    Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups.
D.    Endpoints must be in different VRFs.
E.    Endpoint must connect to different leaf switches.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 4
For which two multicast distribution modes is RP configuration required? (Choose two.)

A.    ASM
B.    BIDIR
C.    UDIR
D.    SSM
E.    RPF routes for multicast

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 5
If the FCoE negotiation fails, what can you configure the switch to do on that interface?

A.    force-enable FCoE
B.    reset-enable FCoE
C.    active-enable FCoE
D.    passive-enable FCoE

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which docker orchestration tool replaced fig?

A.    Docker Swarm
B.    Docker List
C.    Docker Hub
D.    Docker Compose
E.    Docker Link

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two options are different ways to extend the Layer 2 domain beyond the ACI fabric? (Choose two.)

A.    Extend the bridge domain out of the ACI fabric.
B.    Extend VTEP out the ACI fabric.
C.    Configure fabric access policies on the ACI fabric to match the port settings at the remote end.
D.    Extend the EPG out of the ACI fabric.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8
Which three editing options UCS Director workflow are valid? (Choose three.)

A.    Rename a workflow.
B.    Edit tasks in the workflow.
C.    Change an input from mandatory to optional.
D.    Reorder inputs.
E.    Delete inputs.

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two characteristics of an IoT network are true? (Choose two.)

A.    IoT networks must be designed for low-powered devices.
B.    The transmission rate in an IoT network is consistent.
C.    IoT networks are 100% reliable.
D.    IoT networks use IS-IS for routing.
E.    IoT networks are bandwidth constrained.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 10
Which two statistic classes can be used to define a threshold policy for a compute resource? (Choose two.)

A.    Memory failures
B.    Ethernet port CRC stats
C.    Processor lock ups
D.    Ethernet port stats
E.    Processor runtime

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which three pre-built templates in cloud center are available in core profiles? (Choose three.)

A.    Hadoop jar Runner
B.    Java Web
C.    Parallel
D.    Cluster
E.    PHP Web App
F.    Batch

Answer: CDF

NEW QUESTION 12
Where are the logs that identify issues found in the APIC graphical user interface?

A.    under System -> Faults
B.    under Admin -> External Data Collectors -> Syslog
C.    under Tenant -> Faults
D.    under Operations -> Visibility & Troubleshooting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the network programmability term on the left to the correct description on the right.

Answer:
A-2
B-3
C-5
D-1
E-4

NEW QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the correct functional components from left to its description on right.

Answer:
A-1
B-3
C-2

NEW QUESTION 15
Which state is the optimal health state for an APIC cluster?

A.    In service
B.    Fully synced
C.    In sync
D.    Fully fit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which three advantages of connecting on-premises private cloud-to-cloud VPN versus a direct connection are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Time to provision
B.    QoS
C.    Flexibility
D.    Latency
E.    Cost
F.    Throughput

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 17
Which statement about network ports in a UCS fabric interconnect is true?

A.    Network ports do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in a pin group.
B.    Network ports do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager.
C.    Network ports have BPDU Guard enabled.
D.    Network ports trunk all VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager.
E.    Network ports are placed into a port channel automatically.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
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NEW QUESTION 1
What is the best description of a docker file?

A.    Text document used to build an image.
B.    Message Daemon files.
C.    Software used to manage containers.
D.    Repository for docker images.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is part of DevOps virtuous Cycle?

A.    Lower Quality
B.    Increased Latency
C.    Slower Releases
D.    Improved Scalability

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
How would you best describe Jenkins?

A.    An orchestration tool.
B.    Continuous integration and delivery application.
C.    Operations in a client/server model.
D.    Web-based repository hosting service.
E.    A REST client.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What are the two different modes in which Private AMP cloud can be deployed? (Choose two.)

A.    Hybrid Mode
B.    Internal Mode
C.    Air Gap Mode
D.    External Mode
E.    Cloud-Proxy Mode
F.    Public Mode

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two statements about 802.1x components are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The certificates that are used in the client-server authentication process are stored on the access switch.
B.    The access layer switch is the policy enforcement point.
C.    The RADIUS server is the policy enforcement point.
D.    The RADIUS server is the policy information point.
E.    An LDAP server can serve as the policy enforcement point.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 6
Which statement describes a hybrid SDN framework?

A.    The data plane is pulled from the networking element and put in a SDN controller.
B.    The control plane is pulled from the networking element and put in a SDN controller.
C.    The control plane functions are split between a SDN controller and the networking element.
D.    The control plane and data plane are pulled from the networking element and put in a SDN controller and SDN agent.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which three messages are part of the SSL protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    Change CipherSpec
B.    Alert
C.    Record
D.    Message Authenication
E.    CipherSpec
F.    Handshake

Answer: ABF

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics correctly identify attributes of LPWA technologies? (Choose two.)

A.    Supports high-throughput bandwidth requirements.
B.    Provides better Quality of Service features than NB-loT.
C.    Supports over-the-air distances of over 30km.
D.    Capable of using unlicensed technologies such as SigFox.
E.    End-device with battery life lasting over 10 years.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 9
Which statement about Local Web Authentication is true?

A.    It supports Change of Authorization and VLAN enforcement.
B.    It can use VLANs and ACLs to enforce authorization.
C.    The network device handles guests authentication.
D.    The ISE servers web pages.
E.    It supports posture and profilling services.
F.    The web portal can be customized locally or managed by the ISE.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
For which of the four portals is the SAML Single Sign-On on ISE supported? (Choose four.)

A.    Wireless Client portal.
B.    Certificate Provisioning portal.
C.    Guest portal (sponsored and self registered).
D.    My Device portal.
E.    Employee portal.
F.    Sponsor portal.
G.    Contractor portal.
H.    BYOD portal.

Answer: BCDF

NEW QUESTION 11
Which entity is responsible for the StealthWatch Management Center to interact with ISE?

A.    FMC
B.    DNA
C.    PxGrid
D.    ASA
E.    Threat Grid
F.    NGIPS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which description of the AES encryption algorithm is ture?

A.    Reapplying the same encryption key three times makes it less vulnerable than 3DES.
B.    Theoretically 3DES is more secure than AES.
C.    It uses the block of 64 bits.
D.    It provides only data integrity.
E.    It does not use the substitution and permutation principle.
F.    It uses three encryption keys of lengths 128, 192 and 256.

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following is true regaring failover link when ASAs are configured in the failover mode?

A.    It is not recommended to use secure communication over failover link when ASA terminating the VPN tunnel.
B.    Only the configuration replication sent across the link can be secured using a failover key.
C.    The information sent over the failover link can only be in clear text.
D.    The information sent over the failover link can be sent in clear text or it could be secured communication using a failover key.
E.    Failover key is not required for the secure communication over the failover link.
F.    The information sent over the failover link can be only be sent as a secured communication.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Which statement about VRF-Lite implementation in a service provider network is ture?

A.    It requires multiple links between CE and PE for each VPN connection to enable privacy.
B.    It uses output interfaces to differentiate routes for different VPNs in the CE device.
C.    It can only support one VRF instance per CE device.
D.    It can support multiple VPNs at a CE device with overlapping address space.
E.    It disable the sharing of one CE device among multiple customers.
F.    It can have multiple VRF instances associated with a single interface on a CE device.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
What will be used by WSA to apply the polices when identification is based on ISE?

A.    SGT
B.    proprietary protocol over TCP/8302
C.    SXP
D.    RADIUS
E.    EAP
F.    RPC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
Which two evasion techniques are used by attackers? (Choose two.)

A.    Telnet to launch device administrative session.
B.    Resource exhaustion.
C.    Port access using Dot1X.
D.    ACL implementation to drop unwanted traffic.
E.    Encryption
F.    NAT translations on routers and switches.
G.    URL filtering to block malicious sites.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 17
Which three NETCONF datastores are valid? (Choose three.)

A.    candidate
B.    running
C.    startup
D.    state
E.    capabilities
F.    notification

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop
Drag LDAP queries used by ESA to query LDAP server on the left to its functionality on the right.

Answer:
A-5
B-1
C-4
D-2
E-3

NEW QUESTION 19
Drag and Drop
Drag the PCI-DSS requirements on the left to its security controls on the right.

Answer:
A-5
B-1
C-2
D-3
E-4

NEW QUESTION 20
When an organization is choosing a cloud computing model to adopt, many considerations are studied to determine the most suitable model. To which model is cloud interdependency mainly attributed?

A.    Hybrid cloud
B.    Public cloud
C.    Community cloud
D.    Private cloud

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. You regularly create and delete virtual machines. You need to identify unused disks that can be deleted. What should you do?

A.    From Microsoft Azure Storage Explorer, view the Account Management properties.
B.    From the Azure portal, configure the Advisor recommendations.
C.    From Cloudyn, open the Optimizer tab and create a report.
D.    From Cloudyn, create a Cost Management report.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Unattached Disks report lists storage that is not attached to any active VM. To open the report, click in the Optimizer tab. Select Inefficiencies and the click Unattached Disks.
https://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/0e4b3c28-a7f3-416b-84b7-3753f534e1b9/faq-how-to-save-money-with-cloudyn-8211-10-steps?forum=Cloudyn
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management/overview

NEW QUESTION 2
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.
B.    Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
C.    Create an Azure policy.
D.    Create an automation account.
E.    Upload a configuration script.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Virtual Machine Scale Sets can be used with the Azure Desired State Configuration (DSC) extension handler. Virtual machine scale sets provide a way to deploy and manage large numbers of virtual machines, and can elastically scale in and out in response to load. DSC is used to configure the VMs as they come online so they are running the production software.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/virtual-machine-scale-sets-dsc

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company has an Azure subscription named Subscription1. The company also has two on-premises servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a DNS server that has a primary DNS zone named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains 1,000 DNS records. You manage Server1 and Subscription1 from Server2. Server2 has the following tools installed:
– The DNS Manager console
– Azure PowerShell
– Azure CLI 2.0
You need to move the adatum.com zone to Subscription1. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you use?

A.    The Azure PowerShell
B.    The Azure CLI
C.    The Azure Portal
D.    The DNS Manager Console

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure DNS supports importing and exporting zone files by using the Azure command-line interface (CLI). Zone file import is not currently supported via Azure PowerShell or the Azure portal.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-import-export

NEW QUESTION 4
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contosocloud.onmicrosoft.com. Your company has a public DNS zone for contoso.com. You add contoso.com as a custom domain name to Azure AD. You need to ensure that Azure can verify the domain name. Which type of DNS record should you create?

A.    RRSIG
B.    PTR
C.    DNSKEY
D.    TXT

Answer: D
Explanation:
Create the TXT record. App Services uses this record only at configuration time to verify that you own the custom domain. You can delete this TXT record after your custom domain is validated and configured in App Service.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-web-sites-custom-domain

NEW QUESTION 5
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template named ARM1.json. You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance. You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: Solution: From the Overview blade, you move the virtual machine to a different subscription.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/troubleshooting/redeploy-to-new-node-windows

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains an Azure Storage account named storageaccount1 and a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Storageaccount1 contains the disk files for VM1. You apply a ReadOnly lock to RG1. What can you do from the Azure portal?

A.    Generate an automation script for RG1.
B.    View the keys of storageaccount1.
C.    Upload a blob to storageaccount1.
D.    Start VM1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
ReadOnly means authorized users can read a resource, but they can’t delete or update the resource. Applying this lock is similar to restricting all authorized users to the permissions granted by the Reader role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-lock-resources

NEW QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource groups. Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription. You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You assign a built-in policy definition to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines. Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance. You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center. What should you do?

A.    Add an extension to the virtual machines.
B.    Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine.
C.    Assign tags to the virtual machines.
D.    Configure locks for the virtual machine.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 9
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A.    Azure SQL Database
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    A Virtual Machine
D.    Azure Blob Storage

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

NEW QUESTION 10
You plan to back up an Azure virtual machine named VM1. You discover that the Backup Pre-Check status displays a status of Warning. What is a possible cause of the Warning status?

A.    VM1 does not have the latest version of WaAppAgent.exe installed.
B.    VM1 has an unmanaged disk.
C.    VM1 is stopped.
D.    A Recovery Services vault is unavailable.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Warning state indicates one or more issues in VM’s configuration that might lead to backup failures and provides recommended steps to ensure successful backups. Not having the latest VM Agent installed, for example, can cause backups to fail intermittently and falls in this class of issues.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-vm-backup-pre-checks/

NEW QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription that contains three virtual networks named VNet1, VNet2, VNet3. VNet2 contains a virtual appliance named VM2 that operates as a router. You are configuring the virtual networks in a hub and spoke topology that uses VNet2 as the hub network. You plan to configure peering between VNet1 and VNet2 and between VNet2 and VNet3. You need to provide connectivity between VNet1 and VNet3 through VNet2. Which two configurations should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On the peering connections, allow forwarded traffic.
B.    On the peering connections, allow gateway transit.
C.    Create route tables and assign the table to subnets.
D.    Create a route filter.
E.    On the peering connections, use remote gateways.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
Allow gateway transit: Check this box if you have a virtual network gateway attached to this virtual network and want to allow traffic from the peered virtual network to flow through the gateway. The peered virtual network must have the Use remote gateways checkbox checked when setting up the peering from the other virtual network to this virtual network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

NEW QUESTION 12
You have an Azure web app named Appl. App1 runs in an Azure App Service plan named Plan1. Plan1 is associated to the Free pricing tier. You discover that App1 stops each day after running continuously for 60 minutes. You need to ensure that App1 can run continuously for the entire day.
Solution: You change the pricing tier of Plan1 to Basic.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Free Tier provides 60 CPU minutes/day. This explains why App1 is stops. The Basic tier has no such cap.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/windows/

NEW QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1. Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev. You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the DevTest Labs User role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
DevTest Labs User role only lets you connect, start, restart, and shutdown virtual machines in your Azure DevTest Labs. You would need the Logic App Contributor role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

NEW QUESTION 14
You are building a custom Azure function app to connect to Azure Event Grid. You need to ensure that resources are allocated dynamically to the function app. Billing must be based on the executions of the app. What should you configure when you create the function app?

A.    The Windows operating system and the Consumption plan hosting plan.
B.    The Windows operating system and the App Service plan hosting plan.
C.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the B1 pricing tier.
D.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Functions runs in two different modes: Consumption plan and Azure App Service plan. The Consumption plan automatically allocates compute power when your code is running. Your app is scaled out when needed to handle load, and scaled down when code is not running.
Incorrect:
Not B: When you run in an App Service plan, you must manage the scaling of your function app.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-first-azure-function

NEW QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources:
– a virtual network named VNet1
– a replication policy named ReplPolicy1
– a Recovery Services vault named Vault1
– an Azure Storage account named Storage1
You have an Amazon Web Services (AWS) EC2 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server. You need to migrate VM1 to VNet1 by using Azure Site Recovery. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 1: Deploy an EC2 virtual machine as a configuration server Prepare source include:
1. Use an EC2 instance that’s running Windows Server 2012 R2 to create a configuration server and register it with your recovery vault.
2. Configure the proxy on the EC2 instance VM you’re using as the configuration server so that it can access the service URLs.
Step 2: Install Azure Site Recovery Unified Setup. Download Microsoft Azure Site Recovery Unified Setup. You can download it to your local machine and then copy it to the VM you’re using as the configuration server.
Step 3: Enable replication for VM1. Enable replication for each VM that you want to migrate. When replication is enabled, Site Recovery automatically installs the Mobility service.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-aws-azure

NEW QUESTION 16
HotSpot
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that connects to your on-premises network by using a site-to-site VPN. VNet1 contains one subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 is associated to a network security group (NSG) named NSG1. Subnet1 contains a basic internal load balancer named ILB1. ILB1 has three Azure virtual machines in the backend pool. You need to collect data about the IP addresses that connects to ILB1. You must be able to run interactive queries from the Azure portal against the collected data. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
For Box 1: In the Azure portal you can set up a Log Analytics workspace, which is a unique Log Analytics environment with its own data repository, data sources, and solutions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/learn/quick-create-workspace
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/load-balancer/load-balancer-standard-diagnostics

NEW QUESTION 17
You have a Basic App Service plan named ASP1 that hosts an Azure App Service named App1. You need to configure a custom domain and enable backups for App1. What should you do first?

A.    Configure a WebJob for App1.
B.    Scale up ASP1.
C.    Scale out ASP1.
D.    Configure the application settings for App1.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains an Azure virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 connects to your on-premises network by using Azure ExpressRoute. You need to connect VNet1 to the on-premises network by using a site-to-site VPN. The solution must minimize cost. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create a local site VPN gateway.
B.    Create a VPN gateway that uses the VpnGw1 SKU.
C.    Create a VPN gateway that uses the Basic SKU.
D.    Create a gateway subnet.
E.    Create a connection.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
For a site to site VPN, you need a local gateway, a gateway subnet, a VPN gateway, and a connection to connect the local gateway and the VPN gateway. That would be four answers in this question. However, the question states that VNet1 connects to your on-premises network by using Azure ExpressRoute. For an ExpressRoute connection, VNET1 must already be configured with a gateway subnet so we don’t need another one.

NEW QUESTION 19
You are configuring Azure Active Directory (AD) Privileged Identity Management. You need to provide a user named Admm1 with read access to a resource group named RG1 for only one month. The user role must be assigned immediately. What should you do?

A.    Assign an active role.
B.    Assign an eligible role.
C.    Assign a permanently active role.
D.    Create a custom role and a conditional access policy.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management introduces the concept of an eligible admin. Eligible admins should be users that need privileged access now and then, but not all-day, every day. The role is inactive until the user needs access, then they complete an activation process and become an active admin for a predetermined amount of time.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 20
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named Tenant1 and Tenant2. Subscnption1 is associated to Tenant1 Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is enabled for all the users in Tenant1. You need to enable MFA for the users in Tenant2. The solution must maintain MFA for Tenant1. What should you do first?

A.    Transfer the administration of Subscription1 to a global administrator of Tenants.
B.    Configure the MFA Server setting in Tenant1.
C.    Create and link a subscription to Tenant2.
D.    Change the directory for Subscription1.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
……

Case Study 1 – ADatum
ADatum Corporation is a financial company that has two main offices in New York and Los Angeles. ADatum has a subsidiary named Fabrikam, Inc. that shares the Los Angeles office. ADatum is conducting an initial deployment of Azure services to host new line-of-business applications and is preparing to migrate its existing on-premises workloads to Azure. ADatum uses Microsoft Exchange Online for email.
……

NEW QUESTION 201
You need to recommend an environment for the deployment of App1. What should you recommend?

A.    A new App Service plan that uses the P3v2 pricing tier.
B.    ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I1 pricing tier.
C.    ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I3 pricing tier.
D.    A new App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-app-service-environment-control-inbound-traffic

NEW QUESTION 202
You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A.    a multi-site listener
B.    a URL path-based routing rule
C.    a basic listener
D.    a basic routing rule

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url-route-portal

NEW QUESTION 203
What should you create to configure AG2?

A.    multi-site listeners
B.    basic listeners
C.    URL path-based routing rules
D.    basic routing rules
E.    an additional public IP address

Answer: A
Explanation:
You need to configure an Azure Application Gateway with multi-site listeners to direct different URLs to different pools.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/multiple-site-overview

NEW QUESTION 204
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd. (A)
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. The Montreal office has 2,000 employees. The Seattle office has 1,000 employees. The New York office has 200 employees. All the resources used by Contoso are hosted on-premises. Contoso creates a new Azure subscription. The Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant uses a domain named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant uses the P1 pricing tier.
……

NEW QUESTION 221
You discover that VM3 does NOT meet the technical requirements. You need to verify whether the issue relates to the NSGs. What should you use?

A.    Diagram in VNet1.
B.    The security recommendations in Azure Advisor.
C.    Diagnostic settings in Azure Monitor.
D.    Diagnose and solve problems in Traffic Manager Profiles.
E.    IP flow verify in Azure Network Watcher.

Answer: E
Explanation:
IP flow verify checks if a packet is allowed or denied to or from a virtual machine. The information consists of direction, protocol, local IP, remote IP, local port, and remote port. If the packet is denied by a security group, the name of the rule that denied the packet is returned. While any source or destination IP can be chosen, IP flow verify helps administrators quickly diagnose connectivity issues from or to the internet and from or to the on-premises environment.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview

NEW QUESTION 222
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A.    an Azure Notification Hub
B.    an Azure Event Hub
C.    an Azure Logic App
D.    an Azure Services Bus

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any code.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app

NEW QUESTION 223
You need to recommend a solution to automate the configuration for the finance department users. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommended?

A.    Azure AP B2C.
B.    Azure AD Identity Protection.
C.    An Azure logic app and the Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) client.
D.    Dynamic groups and conditional access policies.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The recommendation is to use conditional access policies that can then be targeted to groups of users, specific applications, or other conditions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-userstates

NEW QUESTION 224
……

Case Study 3 – Humongous Insurance
Humongous Insurance has a single-domain Active Directory forest named humongousinsurance.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2012. You recently provisioned an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. Each office has a local data center that contains all the servers for that office. Each office has a dedicated connection to the Internet. Each office has several link load balancers that provide access to the servers.
……

NEW QUESTION 231
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A.    Partner information
B.    Overview
C.    Payment methods
D.    Invoices

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-download-azure-invoice-daily-usage-date

NEW QUESTION 232
You need to prepare the environment to meet the authentication requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy.
B.    A Recovery Services vault and a backup policy.
C.    An Azure Key Vault and an access policy.
D.    An Azure Storage account and an access policy.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
D: Seamless SSO works with any method of cloud authentication – Password Hash Synchronization or Pass-through Authentication, and can be enabled via Azure AD Connect.
B: You can gradually roll out Seamless SSO to your users. You start by adding the following Azure AD URL to all or selected users’ Intranet zone settings by using Group Policy in Active Directory.
Incorrect:
Not A: Seamless SSO needs the user’s device to be domain-joined, but doesn’t need for the device to be Azure AD Joined.
Not C: Azure AD connect does not port 8080. It uses port 443.
Not E: Seamless SSO is not applicable to Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sso-quick-start

NEW QUESTION 233
You need to resolve the licensing issue before you attempt to assign the license again. What should you do?

A.    From the Groups blade, invite the user accounts to a new group.
B.    From the Profile blade, modify the usage location.
C.    From the Directory role blade, modify the directory role.

Answer: B
Explanation:
License cannot be assigned to a user without a usage location specified.

NEW QUESTION 234
……

Case Study 4 – Contoso, Ltd. (B)
Contoso, Ltd. is a manufacturing company that has offices worldwide. Contoso works with partner organizations to bring products to market. Contoso products are manufactured by using blueprint files that the company authors and maintains. Currently, Contoso uses multiple types of servers for business operations, including the following:
……

NEW QUESTION 241
You need to meet the user requirement for Admin1. What should you do?

A.    From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription, and then modify the Properties.
B.    From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription, and then modify the Access control (IAM) settings.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Properties.
D.    From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Groups.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Change the Service administrator for an Azure subscription.
– Sign in to Account Center as the Account administrator.
– Select a subscription.
– On the right side, select Edit subscription details.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator

NEW QUESTION 242
You need to move the blueprint files to Azure. What should you do?

A.    Generate a shared access signature (SAS). Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
B.    Use the Azure Import/Export service.
C.    Generate an access key. Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
D.    Use Azure Storage Explorer to copy the files.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure Storage Explorer is a free tool from Microsoft that allows you to work with Azure Storage data on Windows, macOS, and Linux. You can use it to upload and download data from Azure blob storage.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/team-data-science-process/move-data-to-azure-blob-using-azure-storage-explorer

NEW QUESTION 243
You need to recommend an identify solution that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    federated single-on (SSO) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
B.    password hash synchronization and single sign-on (SSO)
C.    cloud-only user accounts
D.    pass-through Authentication and single sign-on (SSO)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Active Directory Federation Services is a feature and web service in the Windows Server Operating System that allows sharing of identity information outside a company’s network.
https://www.sherweb.com/blog/office-365/active-directory-federation-services/

NEW QUESTION 244
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More Lab/SIMULATION
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