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NEW QUESTION 1
You are conducting feature engineering to prepuce data for further analysis. The data includes seasonal patterns on inventory requirements. You need to select the appropriate method to conduct feature engineering on the data. Which method should you use?

A.    Exponential Smoothing (ETS) function.
B.    One Class Support Vector Machine module.
C.    Time Series Anomaly Detection module.
D.    Finite Impulse Response (FIR) Filter module.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You plan to use a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) to train deep learning models using Compute Unified Device Architecture (CUDA) computations. You need to configure the DLVM to support CUDA. What should you implement?

A.    Intel Software Guard Extensions (Intel SGX) technology.
B.    Solid State Drives (SSD).
C.    Graphic Processing Unit (GPU).
D.    Computer Processing Unit (CPU) speed increase by using overclocking.
E.    High Random Access Memory (RAM) configuration.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You are creating a new experiment in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You have a small dataset that has missing values in many columns. The data does not require the application of predictors for each column. You plan to use the Clean Missing Data module to handle the missing data. You need to select a data cleaning method. Which method should you use?

A.    Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE)
B.    Replace using MICE
C.    Replace using Probabilistic PCA
D.    Normalization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You are a data scientist using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to normalize values to produce an output column into bins to predict a target column.
Solution: Apply an Equal Width with Custom Start and Stop binning mode.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use the Entropy MDL binning mode which has a target column.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/group-data-into-bins

NEW QUESTION 5
You are using Azure Machine Learning Studio to perform feature engineering on a dataset. You need to normalize values to produce a feature column grouped into bins.
Solution: Apply an Entropy Minimum Description Length (MDL) binning mode.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Entropy MDL binning mode: This method requires that you select the column you want to predict and the column or columns that you want to group into bins. It then makes a pass over the data and attempts to determine the number of bins that minimizes the entropy. In other words, it chooses a number of bins that allows the data column to best predict the target column.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/group-data-into-bins

NEW QUESTION 6
You are a data scientist building a deep convolutional neural network (CNN) for image classification. The CNN model you built shows signs of overfitting. You need to reduce overfitting and converge the model to an optimal fit. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Reduce the amount of training data.
B.    Add an additional dense layer with 64 input units.
C.    Add L1/L2 regularization.
D.    Use training data augmentation.
E.    Add an additional dense layer with 512 input units.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You are building an intelligent solution using machine learning models. The environment must support the following requirements:
– Data scientists must build notebooks in a cloud environment.
– Data scientists must use automatic feature engineering and model building in machine learning pipelines.
– Notebooks must be deployed to retrain using Spark instances with dynamic worker allocation.
– Notebooks must be exportable to be version controlled locally.
You need to create the environment. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 1: Create an Azure HDInsight cluster to include the Apache Spark Mlib library.
Step 2: Install Microsot Machine Learning for Apache Spark. You install AzureML on your Azure HDInsight cluster. Microsoft Machine Learning for Apache Spark (MMLSpark) provides a number of deep learning and data science tools for Apache Spark, including seamless integration of Spark Machine Learning pipelines with Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit (CNTK) and OpenCV, enabling you to quickly create powerful, highly-scalable predictive and analytical models for large image and text datasets.
Step 3: Create and execute the Zeppelin notebooks on the cluster.
Step 4: When the cluster is ready, export Zeppelin notebooks to a local environment. Notebooks must be exportable to be version controlled locally.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-zeppelin-notebook
https://azuremlbuild.blob.core.windows.net/pysparkapi/intro.html

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You create an experiment in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You add a training dataset that contains 10,000 rows. The first 9,000 rows represent class 0 (90 percent). The remaining 1,000 rows represent class 1 (10 percent). The training set is imbalances between two classes. You must increase the number of training examples for class 1 to 4,000 by using 5 data rows. You add the Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE) module to the experiment. You need to configure the module. Which values should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: 300. You type 300 (%), the module triples the percentage of minority cases (3000) compared to the original dataset (1000).
Box 2: 5. We should use 5 data rows. Use the Number of nearest neighbors option to determine the size of the feature space that the SMOTE algorithm uses when in building new cases. A nearest neighbor is a row of data (a case) that is very similar to some target case. The distance between any two cases is measured by combining the weighted vectors of all features. By increasing the number of nearest neighbors, you get features from more cases. By keeping the number of nearest neighbors low, you use features that are more like those in the original sample.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote

NEW QUESTION 9
You are creating a machine learning model. You have a dataset that contains null rows. You need to use the Clean Missing Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to identify and resolve the null and missing data in the dataset. Which parameter should you use?

A.    Replace with mean
B.    Remove entire column
C.    Remove entire row
D.    Hot Deck

Answer: C
Explanation:
Remove entire row: Completely removes any row in the dataset that has one or more missing values. This is useful if the missing value can be considered randomly missing.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data

NEW QUESTION 10
You use the Two-Class Neural Network module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to build a binary classification model. You use the Tune Model Hyperparameters module to tune accuracy for the model. You need to select the hyperparameters that should be tuned using the Tune Model Hyperparameters module. Which two hyperparameters should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Number of hidden nodes.
B.    Learning Rate.
C.    The type of the normalizer.
D.    Number of learning iterations.
E.    Hidden layer specification.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
D: For Number of learning iterations, specify the maximum number of times the algorithm should process the training cases.
E: For Hidden layer specification, select the type of network architecture to create. Between the input and output layers you can insert multiple hidden layers. Most predictive tasks can be accomplished easily with only one or a few hidden layers.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/two-class-neural-network

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Sporting Events
You are a data scientist in a company that provides data science for professional sporting events. Models will be global and local market data to meet the following business goals:
……

NEW QUESTION 101
You need to resolve the local machine learning pipeline performance issue. What should you do?

A.    Increase Graphic Processing Units (GPUs).
B.    Increase the learning rate.
C.    Increase the training iterations.
D.    Increase Central Processing Units (CPUs).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 102
You need to select an environment that will meet the business and data requirements. Which environment should you use?

A.    Azure HDInsight with Spark MLlib
B.    Azure Cognitive Services
C.    Azure Machine Learning Studio
D.    Microsoft Machine Learning Server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
You need to implement a scaling strategy for the local penalty detection data. Which normalization type should you use?

A.    Streaming
B.    Weight
C.    Batch
D.    Cosine

Answer: C
Explanation:
Post batch normalization statistics (PBN) is the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit (CNTK) version of how to evaluate the population mean and variance of Batch Normalization which could be used in inference Original Paper. In CNTK, custom networks are defined using the BrainScriptNetworkBuilder and described in the CNTK network description language “BrainScript”.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cognitive-toolkit/post-batch-normalization-statistics

NEW QUESTION 104
……

Case Study 2 – Fabrikam
You are a data scientist for Fabrikam Residences, a company specializing in quality private and commercial property in the United States. Fabrikam Residences is considering expanding into Europe and has asked you to investigate prices for private residences in major European cities. You use Azure Machine Learning Studio to measure the median value of properties. You produce a regression model to predict property prices by using the Linear Regression and Bayesian Linear Regression modules.
……

NEW QUESTION 107
You need to select a feature extraction method. Which method should you use?

A.    Mutual information
B.    Mood’s median test
C.    Kendall correlation
D.    Permutation Feature Importance

Answer: C
Explanation:
In statistics, the Kendall rank correlation coefficient, commonly referred to as Kendall’s tau coefficient (after the Greek letter τ), is a statistic used to measure the ordinal association between two measured quantities. It is a supported method of the Azure Machine Learning Feature selection.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kendall_rank_correlation_coefficient
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/feature-selection-modules

NEW QUESTION 108
Drag and Drop
You need to correct the model fit issue. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 109
HotSpot
You need to configure the Feature Based Feature Selection module based on the experiment requirements and datasets. How should you configure the module properties? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 110
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the year. You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost. Which option or options should you configure?

A.    Number of transactions only
B.    eDTUs per database only
C.    Number of databases only
D.    CPU usage only
E.    eDTUs and max data size

Answer: E
Explanation:
The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves determining the following:
– Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your choice of resourcing model).
– Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool.
Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based either on the DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

NEW QUESTION 2
A company manages several on-premises Microsoft SQL Server databases. You need to migrate the databases to Microsoft Azure by using a backup and restore process. Which data technology should you use?

A.    Azure SQL Database single database
B.    Azure SQL Data Warehouse
C.    Azure Cosmos DB
D.    Azure SQL Database Managed Instance

Answer: D
Explanation:
Managed instance is a new deployment option of Azure SQL Database, providing near 100% compatibility with the latest SQL Server on-premises (Enterprise Edition) Database Engine, providing a native virtual network (VNet) implementation that addresses common security concerns, and a business model favorable for on-premises SQL Server customers. The managed instance deployment model allows existing SQL Server customers to lift and shift their on-premises applications to the cloud with minimal application and database changes.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 3
A company is designing a hybrid solution to synchronize data and on-premises Microsoft SQL Server database to Azure SQL Database. You must perform an assessment of databases to determine whether data will move without compatibility issues. You need to perform the assessment. Which tool should you use?

A.    SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
C.    SQL Vulnerability Assessment (VA)
D.    Azure SQL Data Sync
E.    Data Migration Assistant (DMA)

Answer: E
Explanation:
The Data Migration Assistant (DMA) helps you upgrade to a modern data platform by detecting compatibility issues that can impact database functionality in your new version of SQL Server or Azure SQL Database. DMA recommends performance and reliability improvements for your target environment and allows you to move your schema, data, and uncontained objects from your source server to your target server.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/dma/dma-overview

NEW QUESTION 4
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
– Scale to minimize costs
– Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor cluster load using the Ambari Web UI.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ambari Web UI does not provide information to suggest how to scale. Instead monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-manage-ambari

NEW QUESTION 5
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
– Scale to minimize costs
– Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs. Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools. These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial

NEW QUESTION 6
A company plans to use Azure Storage for file storage purposes. Compliance rules require:
– A single storage account to store all operations including reads, writes and deletes.
– Retention of an on-premises copy of historical operations.
You need to configure the storage account. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure the storage account to log read, write and delete operations for ServiceType Blob.
B.    Use the AzCopy tool to download log data from $logs/blob.
C.    Configure the storage account to log read, write and delete operations for ServiceType Table.
D.    Use the storage client to download log data from $logs/table.
E.    Configure the storage account to log read, write and delete operations for ServiceType Queue.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Storage Logging logs request data in a set of blobs in a blob container named $logs in your storage account. This container does not show up if you list all the blob containers in your account but you can see its contents if you access it directly. To view and analyze your log data, you should download the blobs that contain the log data you are interested in to a local machine. Many storage-browsing tools enable you to download blobs from your storage account; you can also use the Azure Storage team provided command-line Azure Copy Tool (AzCopy) to download your log data.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/enabling-storage-logging-and-accessing-log-data

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You are developing the data platform for a global retail company. The company operates during normal working hours in each region. The analytical database is used once a week for building sales projections. Each region maintains its own private virtual network. Building the sales projections is very resource intensive are generates upwards of 20 terabytes (TB) of data. Microsoft Azure SQL Databases must be provisioned.
– Database provisioning must maximize performance and minimize cost.
– The daily sales for each region must be stored in an Azure SQL Database instance.
– Once a day, the data for all regions must be loaded in an analytical Azure SQL Database instance.
You need to provision Azure SQL database instances. How should you provision the database instances? (To answer, drag the appropriate Azure SQL products to the correct databases. Each Azure SQL product may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Azure SQL Database elastic pools. SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that have varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single Azure SQL Database server and share a set number of resources at a set price. Elastic pools in Azure SQL Database enable SaaS developers to optimize the price performance for a group of databases within a prescribed budget while delivering performance elasticity for each database.
Box 2: Azure SQL Database Hyperscale. A Hyperscale database is an Azure SQL database in the Hyperscale service tier that is backed by the Hyperscale scale-out storage technology. A Hyperscale database supports up to 100 TB of data and provides high throughput and performance, as well as rapid scaling to adapt to the workload requirements. Scaling is transparent to the application – connectivity, query processing, and so on, work like any other SQL database.
Incorrect:
Azure SQL Database Managed Instance: The managed instance deployment model is designed for customers looking to migrate a large number of apps from on- premises or IaaS, self-built, or ISV provided environment to fully managed PaaS cloud environment, with as low migration effort as possible.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-service-tier-hyperscale-faq

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
A company is planning to use Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB as the data store for an application. You have the following Azure CLI command:
az cosmosdb create –name “cosmosdbdev1” –resource-group “rgdev”
You need to minimize latency and expose the SQL API. How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Eventual. With Azure Cosmos DB, developers can choose from five well-defined consistency models on the consistency spectrum. From strongest to more relaxed, the models include strong, bounded staleness, session, consistent prefix, and eventual consistency.
Box 2: GlobalDocumentDB. Select Core(SQL) to create a document database and query by using SQL syntax.
Note: The API determines the type of account to create. Azure Cosmos DB provides five APIs: Core(SQL) and MongoDB for document databases, Gremlin for graph databases, Azure Table, and Cassandra.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/create-sql-api-dotnet

NEW QUESTION 9
You plan to use Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances with strict user access control. A user object must:
– Move with the database if it is run elsewhere
– Be able to create additional users
You need to create the user object with correct permissions. Which two Transact-SQL commands should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    ALTER LOGIN Mary WITH PASSWORD = ‘strong_password’;
B.    CREATE LOGIN Mary WITH PASSWORD = ‘strong_password’;
C.    ALTER ROLE db_owner ADD MEMBER Mary;
D.    CREATE USER Mary WITH PASSWORD = ‘strong_password’;
E.    GRANT ALTER ANY USER TO Mary;

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: ALTER ROLE adds or removes members to or from a database role, or changes the name of a user-defined database role. Members of the db_owner fixed database role can perform all configuration and maintenance activities on the database, and can also drop the database in SQL Server.
D: CREATE USER adds a user to the current database.
Note: Logins are created at the server level, while users are created at the database level. In other words, a login allows you to connect to the SQL Server service (also called an instance), and permissions inside the database are granted to the database users, not the logins. The logins will be assigned to server roles (for example, serveradmin) and the database users will be assigned to roles within that database (eg. db_datareader, db_bckupoperator).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-role-transact-sql
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-user-transact-sql

NEW QUESTION 10
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. You need to ingest and visualize real-time Twitter data by using Microsoft Azure. Which three technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Event Grid topic.
B.    Azure Stream Analytics Job that queries Twitter data from an Event Hub.
C.    Azure Stream Analytics Job that queries Twitter data from an Event Grid.
D.    Logic App that sends Twitter posts which have target keywords to Azure.
E.    Event Grid subscription.
F.    Event Hub instance.

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
You can use Azure Logic apps to send tweets to an event hub and then use a Stream Analytics job to read from event hub and send them to PowerBI.
https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Integrations-with-Files-and/Twitter-streaming-analytics-step-by-step/td-p/9594

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Proseware, Inc.
Proseware, Inc. develops and manages a product named Poll Taker. The product is used for delivering public opinion polling and analysis. Polling data comes from a variety of sources, including online surveys, house-to-house interviews, and booths at public events.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to ensure that phone-based poling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database. How should you configure Azure Data Factory?

A.    Use a tumbling schedule trigger.
B.    Use an event-based trigger.
C.    Use a schedule trigger.
D.    Use manual execution.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When creating a schedule trigger, you specify a schedule (start date, recurrence, end date etc.) for the trigger, and associate with a Data Factory pipeline.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-schedule-trigger

NEW QUESTION 52
Drag and Drop
You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 53
HotSpot
You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure monitoring? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso
Contoso relies on an extensive partner network for marketing, sales, and distribution. Contoso uses external companies that manufacture everything from the actual pharmaceutical to the packaging. The majority of the company’s data reside in Microsoft SQL Server database. Application databases fall into one of the following tiers:
……

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to process and query ingested Tier 9 data. Which two options should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Notification Hub
B.    Transact-SQL statements
C.    Azure Cache for Redis
D.    Apache Kafka statements
E.    Azure Event Grid
F.    Azure Stream Analytics

Answer: EF
Explanation:
Event Hubs provides a Kafka endpoint that can be used by your existing Kafka based applications as an alternative to running your own Kafka cluster. You can stream data into Kafka-enabled Event Hubs and process it with Azure Stream Analytics, in the following steps:
– Create a Kafka enabled Event Hubs namespace.
– Create a Kafka client that sends messages to the event hub.
– Create a Stream Analytics job that copies data from the event hub into an Azure blob storage.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-kafka-stream-analytics

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to set up Azure Data Factory pipelines to meet data movement requirements. Which integration runtime should you use?

A.    Self-hosted Integration Runtime
B.    Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime
C.    .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR)
D.    Azure Integration Runtime

Answer: A
Explanation:
The following table describes the capabilities and network support for each of the integration runtime types:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-integration-runtime

NEW QUESTION 59
You need to implement diagnostic logging for Data Warehouse monitoring. Which log should you use?

A.    RequestSteps
B.    DmsWorkers
C.    SqlRequests
D.    ExecRequests

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/sys-dm-pdw-sql-requests-transact-sql

NEW QUESTION 60
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You are evaluating data storage solutions to support a new application. You need to recommend a data storage solution that represents data by using nodes and relationships in graph structures. Which data storage solution should you recommend?

A.    Blob Storage
B.    Cosmos DB
C.    Data Lake Store
D.    HDInsight

Answer: B
Explanation:
For large graphs with lots of entities and relationships, you can perform very complex analyses very quickly. Many graph databases provide a query language that you can use to traverse a network of relationships efficiently.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/technology-choices/data-store-overview

NEW QUESTION 2
You are designing a data processing solution that will implement the lambda architecture pattern. The solution will use Spark running on HDInsight for data processing. You need to recommend a data storage technology for the solution. Which two technologies should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Cosmos DB
B.    Azure Service Bus
C.    Azure Storage Queue
D.    Apache Cassandra
E.    Kafka HDInsight

Answer: AE
Explanation:
Option A:
To implement a lambda architecture on Azure, you can combine the following technologies to accelerate real-time big data analytics:
– Azure Cosmos DB, the industry’s first globally distributed, multi-model database service.
– Apache Spark for Azure HDInsight, a processing framework that runs large-scale data analytics applications.
– Azure Cosmos DB change feed, which streams new data to the batch layer for HDInsight to process.
– The Spark to Azure Cosmos DB Connector.
Option E: You can use Apache Spark to stream data into or out of Apache Kafka on HDInsight using DStreams.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/lambda-architecture

NEW QUESTION 3
You are designing a solution for a company. The solution will use model training for objective classification. You need to design the solution. What should you recommend?

A.    An Azure Cognitive Services application.
B.    A Spark Streaming job.
C.    Interactive Spark queries.
D.    Power BI models.
E.    A Spark application that uses Spark MLlib.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Spark in SQL Server big data cluster enables AI and machine learning. You can use Apache Spark MLlib to create a machine learning application to do simple predictive analysis on an open dataset. MLlib is a core Spark library that provides many utilities useful for machine learning tasks, including utilities that are suitable for:
– Classification
– Regression
– Clustering
– Topic modeling
– Singular value decomposition (SVD) and principal component analysis (PCA)
– Hypothesis testing and calculating sample statistics
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-machine-learning-mllib-ipython

NEW QUESTION 4
A company is developing a solution to manage inventory data for a group of automotive repair shops. The solution will use Azure SQL Data Warehouse as the data store. Shops will upload data every 10 days. Data corruption checks must run each time data is uploaded. If corruption is detected, the corrupted data must be removed. You need to ensure that upload processes and data corruption checks do not impact reporting and analytics processes that use the data warehouse.
Solution: Insert data from shops and perform the data corruption check in a transaction. Rollback transfer if corruption is detected.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead, create a user-defined restore point before data is uploaded. Delete the restore point after data corruption checks complete.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

NEW QUESTION 5
A company is developing a solution to manage inventory data for a group of automotive repair shops. The solution will use Azure SQL Data Warehouse as the data store. Shops will upload data every 10 days. Data corruption checks must run each time data is uploaded. If corruption is detected, the corrupted data must be removed. You need to ensure that upload processes and data corruption checks do not impact reporting and analytics processes that use the data warehouse.
Solution: Create a user-defined restore point before data is uploaded. Delete the restore point after data corruption checks complete.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
User-Defined Restore Points. This feature enables you to manually trigger snapshots to create restore points of your data warehouse before and after large modifications. This capability ensures that restore points are logically consistent, which provides additional data protection in case of any workload interruptions or user errors for quick recovery time.
Note: A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted data warehouse. Restoring your data warehouse is an essential part of any business continuity and disaster recovery strategy because it re-creates your data after accidental corruption or deletion.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

NEW QUESTION 6
You are designing an Azure SQL Data Warehouse. You plan to load millions of rows of data into the data warehouse each day. You must ensure that staging tables are optimized for data loading. You need to design the staging tables. What type of tables should you recommend?

A.    Round-robin distributed table
B.    Hash-distributed table
C.    Replicated table
D.    External table

Answer: A
Explanation:
To achieve the fastest loading speed for moving data into a data warehouse table, load data into a staging table. Define the staging table as a heap and use round-robin for the distribution option.
Incorrect:
Not B: Consider that loading is usually a two-step process in which you first load to a staging table and then insert the data into a production data warehouse table. If the production table uses a hash distribution, the total time to load and insert might be faster if you define the staging table with the hash distribution. Loading to the staging table takes longer, but the second step of inserting the rows to the production table does not incur data movement across the distributions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/guidance-for-loading-data

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You are designing a Spark job that performs batch processing of daily web log traffic. When you deploy the job in the production environment, it must meet the following requirements:
– Run once a day.
– Display status information on the company intranet as the job runs.
You need to recommend technologies for triggering and monitoring jobs. Which technologies should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct locations. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Livy. You can use Livy to run interactive Spark shells or submit batch jobs to be run on Spark.
Box 2: Beeline. Apache Beeline can be used to run Apache Hive queries on HDInsight. You can use Beeline with Apache Spark.
Note: Beeline is a Hive client that is included on the head nodes of your HDInsight cluster. Beeline uses JDBC to connect to HiveServer2, a service hosted on your HDInsight cluster. You can also use Beeline to access Hive on HDInsight remotely over the internet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-livy-rest-interface
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-beeline

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You are designing a recovery strategy for your Azure SQL Databases. The recovery strategy must use default automated backup settings. The solution must include a Point-in time restore recovery strategy. You need to recommend which backups to use and the order in which to restore backups. What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
All Basic, Standard, and Premium databases are protected by automatic backups. Full backups are taken every week, differential backups every day, and log backups every 5 minutes.
https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/azure-sql-database-point-in-time-restore/

NEW QUESTION 9
A company stores sensitive information about customers and employees in Azure SQL Database. You need to ensure that the sensitive data remains encrypted in transit and at rest. What should you recommend?

A.    Transparent Data Encryption
B.    Always Encrypted with secure enclaves
C.    Azure Disk Encryption
D.    SQL Server AlwaysOn

Answer: B
Explanation:
Not A: Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) encrypts SQL Server, Azure SQL Database, and Azure SQL Data Warehouse data files, known as encrypting data at rest. TDE does not provide encryption across communication channels.
https://cloudblogs.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2018/12/17/confidential-computing-using-always-encrypted-with-secure-enclaves-in-sql-server-2019-preview/

NEW QUESTION 10
You plan to use Azure SQL Database to support a line of business app. You need to identify sensitive data that is stored in the database and monitor access to the data. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Enable Data Discovery and Classification.
B.    Implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
C.    Enable Auditing.
D.    Run Vulnerability Assessment.
E.    Use Advanced Threat Protection.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Trey Research
Trey Research is a technology innovator. The company partners with regional transportation department office to build solutions that improve traffic flow and safety. The company is developing the following solutions:
……

NEW QUESTION 41
You need to design the vehicle images storage solution. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Media Services
B.    Azure Premium Storage Account
C.    Azure Redis Cache
D.    Azure Cosmos DB

Answer: B
Explanation:
Premium Storage stores data on the latest technology Solid State Drives (SSDs) whereas Standard Storage stores data on Hard Disk Drives (HDDs). Premium Storage is designed for Azure Virtual Machine workloads which require consistent high IO performance and low latency in order to host IO intensive workloads like OLTP, Big Data, and Data Warehousing on platforms like SQL Server, MongoDB, Cassandra, and others. With Premium Storage, more customers will be able to lift-and-shift demanding enterprise applications to the cloud.
https://azure.microsoft.com/es-es/blog/introducing-premium-storage-high-performance-storage-for-azure-virtual-machine-workloads/

NEW QUESTION 42
You need to recommend an Azure SQL Database pricing tier for Planning Assistance. Which pricing tier should you recommend?

A.    Business critical Azure SQL Database single database.
B.    General purpose Azure SQL Database Managed Instance.
C.    Business critical Azure SQL Database Managed Instance.
D.    General purpose Azure SQL Database single database.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure resource costs must be minimized where possible. Data used for Planning Assistance must be stored in a sharded Azure SQL Database. The SLA for Planning Assistance is 70 percent, and multiday outages are permitted.

NEW QUESTION 43
You need to design the runtime environment for the Real Time Response system. What should you recommend?

A.    General Purpose nodes without the Enterprise Security package.
B.    Memory Optimized nodes without the Enterprise Security package.
C.    Memory Optimized nodes with the Enterprise Security package.
D.    General Purpose nodes with the Enterprise Security package.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 44
……

Case Study 2 – Proseware, Inc.
Proseware, Inc. identifies the following business requirements:
– You must transfer all images and customer data to cloud storage and remove on-premises servers.
– You must develop an analytical processing solution for transforming customer data.
– You must develop an image object and color tagging solution.
– Capital expenditures must be minimized.
– Cloud resource costs must be minimized.
The solution has the following technical requirements:
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to design the solution for analyzing customer data. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Databricks
B.    Azure Data Lake Storage
C.    Azure SQL Data Warehouse
D.    Azure Cognitive Services
E.    Azure Batch

Answer: A
Explanation:
Customer data must be analyzed using managed Spark clusters. You create spark clusters through Azure Databricks.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/quickstart-create-databricks-workspace-portal

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to recommend a solution for storing the image tagging data. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure File Storage
B.    Azure Cosmos DB
C.    Azure Blob Storage
D.    Azure SQL Database
E.    Azure SQL Data Warehouse

Answer: C
Explanation:
Image data must be stored in a single data store at minimum cost.
Note: Azure Blob storage is Microsoft’s object storage solution for the cloud. Blob storage is optimized for storing massive amounts of unstructured data. Unstructured data is data that does not adhere to a particular data model or definition, such as text or binary data. Blob storage is designed for:
– Serving images or documents directly to a browser.
– Storing files for distributed access.
– Streaming video and audio.
– Writing to log files.
– Storing data for backup and restore, disaster recovery, and archiving.
– Storing data for analysis by an on-premises or Azure-hosted service.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blobs-introduction

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to design a backup solution for the processed customer data. What should you include in the design?

A.    AzCopy
B.    AdlCopy
C.    Geo-Redundancy
D.    Geo-Replication

Answer: C
Explanation:
Geo-redundant storage (GRS) is designed to provide at least 99.99999999999999% (16 9’s) durability of objects over a given year by replicating your data to a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away from the primary region. If your storage account has GRS enabled, then your data is durable even in the case of a complete regional outage or a disaster in which the primary region isn’t recoverable.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 3 – Contoso
Contoso has the following virtual machines (VMs):
……

NEW QUESTION 61
You need to design a solution to meet the SQL Server storage requirements for CONT_SQL3. Which type of disk should you recommend?

A.    Standard SSD Managed Disk
B.    Premium SSD Managed Disk
C.    Ultra SSD Managed Disk

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/disks-types

NEW QUESTION 62
You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend?

A.    AlwaysOn
B.    Transactional processing
C.    General
D.    Data warehousing

Answer: B
Explanation:
CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements:
– In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)
– Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads
– Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads
https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sql-database.html

NEW QUESTION 63
You need to recommend a backup strategy for CONT_SQL1 and CONT_SQL2. What should you recommend?

A.    Use AzCopy and store the data in Azure.
B.    Configure Azure SQL Database long-term retention for all databases.
C.    Configure Accelerated Database Recovery.
D.    Use DWLoader.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 64
……


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NEW QUESTION 198
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines. You need to ensure that you receive an email message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or deallocated. What is the minimum number of rules and action groups that you require?

A.    three rules and three action groups
B.    one rule and one action group
C.    three rules and one action group
D.    one rule and three action groups

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 199
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 DataCenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Upload a configuration script.
B.    Create an automation account.
C.    Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
D.    Create an Azure policy.
E.    Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template

NEW QUESTION 200
An app uses a virtual network with two subnets. One subnet is used for the application server. The other subnet is used for a database server. A network virtual appliance (NVA) is used as a firewall. Traffic destined for one specific address prefix is routed to the NVA and then to an on-premises database server that stores sensitive data. A Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) route is used for the traffic to the on-premises database server. You need to recommend a method for creating the user-defined route. Which two options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    For the virtual network configuration, use a VPN.
B.    For the next hop type, use virtual network peering.
C.    For the virtual network configuration, use Azure ExpressRoute.
D.    For the next hop type, use a virtual network gateway.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview

NEW QUESTION 201
You manage a solution in Azure that consists of a single application which runs on a virtual machine (VM). Traffic to the application has increased dramatically. The application must not experience any downtime and scaling must be dynamically defined. You need to define an auto-scale strategy to ensure that the VM can handle the workload. Which three options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Deploy application automatic vertical scaling.
B.    Create a VM availability set.
C.    Create a VM scale set.
D.    Deploy application automatic horizontal scaling.
E.    Deploy a custom auto-scale implementation.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 202
You are implementing authentication for applications in your company. You plan to implement self-service password reset (SSPR) and multifactor authentication (MFA) in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to select authentication mechanisms that can be used for both MFA and SSPR. Which two authentication methods should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Short Message Service (SMS) messages
B.    Azure AD passwords
C.    Email addresses
D.    Security questions
E.    App passwords

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-authentication-methods

NEW QUESTION 203
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1.
Solution: From the RG1 blade, you click Deployments.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 204
You plan to use the Azure Import/Export service to copy files to a storage account. Which two files should you create before you prepare the drives for the import job? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    a dataset CSV file
B.    an XML manifest file
C.    a driveset CSV file
D.    a PowerShell PS1 file
E.    a JSON configuration file

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: Modify the dataset.csv file in the root folder where the tool resides. Depending on whether you want to import a file or folder or both, add entries in the dataset.csv file.
C: Modify the driveset.csv file in the root folder where the tool resides.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-data-to-files

NEW QUESTION 205
You create an Azure Storage account named contosostorage. You plan to create a file share named data. Users need to map a drive to the data file share from home computers that run Windows 10. Which outbound port should you open between the home computers and the data file share?

A.    80
B.    443
C.    445
D.    3389

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ensure port 445 is open: The SMB protocol requires TCP port 445 to be open; connections will fail if port 445 is blocked.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-windows

NEW QUESTION 206
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
……
Your on-premises network uses an IP address range of 131.107.2.0 to 131.107.2.255. You need to ensure that only devices from the on-premises network can connect to the rg1lod8322490n1 storage account. What should you do from the Azure portal?

Answer:
Step 1: Navigate to the rg1lod8322490n1 storage account.
Step 2: Click on the settings menu called Firewalls and virtual networks.
Step 3: Ensure that you have elected to allow access from ‘Selected networks’.
Step 4: To grant access to an internet IP range, enter the address range of 131.107.2.0 to 131.107.2.255 (in CIDR format) under Firewall, Address Ranges.
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

NEW QUESTION 207
You have an Azure tenant that contains two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. In Subscription1, you deploy a virtual machine named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 uses managed disks. You need to move Server1 to Subscription2. The solution must minimize administration effort. What should you do first?

A.    Create a new virtual machine in Subscription2.
B.    In Subscription2, create a copy of the virtual disk.
C.    Create a snapshot of the virtual disk.
D.    From Azure PowerShell, run the Move-AzureRmResource cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To move existing resources to another resource group or subscription, use the Move-AzureRmResource cmdlet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-move-resources#move-resources

NEW QUESTION 208
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines. Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance. You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center. What should you do?

A.    Add an extension to the virtual machines.
B.    Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine.
C.    Assign tags to the virtual machines.
D.    Configure locks for the virtual machine.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 209
You have an Azure subscription that contains two storage accounts named storagecontoso1 and storagecontoso2. Each storage account contains a queue service, a table service, and a blob service. You develop two apps named App1 and App2. You need to configure the apps to store different types of data to all the storage services on both the storage accounts. How many endpoints should you configure for each app?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    6
D.    12

Answer: A
Explanation:
Each app needs a service endpoint in each Storage Account.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

NEW QUESTION 210
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
……
You need to deploy two Azure virtual machines named VM1003a and VM1003b based on an Ubuntu Server image. The deployment must meet the following requirements:
– Provide a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.95 percent availability
– Use managed disks
What should you do from the Azure portal?

Answer:
Step 1: Open the Azure portal.
Step 2: On the left menu, select All resources. You can sort the resources by Type to easily find your images.
Step 3: Select the image you want to use from the list. The image Overview page opens.
Step 4: Select Create VM from the menu.
Step 5: Enter the virtual machine information. Select VM1003a as the name for the first Virtual machine. The user name and password entered here will be used to log in to the virtual machine. When complete, select OK. You can create the new VM in an existing resource group, or choose Create new to create a new resource group to store the VM.
Step 6: Select a size for the VM. To see more sizes, select View all or change the Supported disk type filter.
Step 7: Under Settings, make changes as necessary and select OK.
Step 8: On the summary page, you should see your image name listed as a Private image. Select Ok to start the virtual machine deployment.
Repeat the procedure for the second VM and name it VM1003b.
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/create-vm-generalized-managed

NEW QUESTION 211
You have an Azure subscription that contains a policy-based virtual network gateway named GW1 and a virtual network named VNet1. You need to ensure that you can configure a point-to-site connection from VNet1 to an on-premises computer. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add a service endpoint to VNet1.
B.    Add a public IP address space to VNet1.
C.    Create a route-based virtual network gateway.
D.    Reset GW1.
E.    Delete GW1.
F.    Add a connection to GW1.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 212
A company hosts virtual machines (VMs) in an on-premises datacenter and in Azure. The on-premises and Azure-based VMs communicate using ExpressRoute. The company wants to be able to continue regular operations if the ExpressRoute connection fails. Failover connections must use the Internet and must not require Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) support. You need to recommend a solution that provides continued operations. What should you recommend?

A.    Set up a second ExpressRoute connection.
B.    Increase the bandwidth of the existing ExpressRoute connection.
C.    Increase the bandwidth for the on-premises internet connection.
D.    Set up a VPN connection.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/hybrid-networking/expressroute-vpn-failover

NEW QUESTION 213
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Service Fabric cluster and a Service Fabric application named FabricApp. You develop and package a Service Fabric application named AppPackage. AppPackage is saved in a compressed folder named AppPackage.zip. You upload AppPackage.zip to an external store. You need to register AppPackage in the Azure subscription. What should you do first?

A.    Run the New-ServiceFabricApplication cmdlet.
B.    Repackage the application in a file named App.sfpkg.
C.    Create a new Service Fabric cluster.
D.    Copy AppPackage.zip to a blob storage account.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-fabric/service-fabric-package-apps#create-an-sfpkg

NEW QUESTION 214
Hotspot
Your company runs several Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs). You must design a solution that implements data privacy, compliance, and data sovereignty for all storage uses in Azure. You plan to secure all Azure storage accounts by using Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to secure the data used by the VMs. Which solution should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate solutions in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/security-storage-overview

NEW QUESTION 215
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A.    An Azure Cosmos DB database
B.    Azure SQL Database
C.    Azure File Storage
D.    Azure Data Lake Store

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

NEW QUESTION 216
You plan to back up an Azure virtual machine named VM1. You discover that the Backup Pre-Check status displays a status of Warning. What is a possible cause of the Warning status?

A.    VM1 does not have the latest version of WaAppAgent.exe installed.
B.    A Recovery Services vault is unavailable.
C.    VM1 has an unmanaged disk.
D.    VM1 is stopped.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Warning state indicates one or more issues in VM’s configuration that might lead to backup failures and provides recommended steps to ensure successful backups. Not having the latest VM Agent installed, for example, can cause backups to fail intermittently and falls in this class of issues.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-vm-backup-pre-checks/

NEW QUESTION 217
Drag and Drop
You are developing Azure WebJobs. You need to recommend a WebJob type for each scenario. Which WebJob type should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate WebJob types to the correct scenarios. Each WebJob type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/webjobs-create#webjob-types

NEW QUESTION 218
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that you use for testing. VM1 is protected by Azure Backup. You delete VM1. You need to remove the backup data stored for VM1. What should you do first?

A.    Delete the storage account.
B.    Stop the backup.
C.    Modify the backup policy.
D.    Delete the Recovery Services vault.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure Backup provides backup for virtual machines — created through both the classic deployment model and the Azure Resource Manager deployment model — by using custom-defined backup policies in a Recovery Services vault. With the release of backup policy management, customers can manage backup policies and model them to meet their changing requirements from a single window. Customers can edit a policy, associate more virtual machines to a policy, and delete unnecessary policies to meet their compliance requirements.
Incorrect:
Not D: You can’t delete a Recovery Services vault if it is registered to a server and holds backup data. If you try to delete a vault, but can’t, the vault is still configured to receive backup data.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/updates/azure-vm-backup-policy-management/

NEW QUESTION 219
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You deploy a Linux virtual machine named VM1 to Subscription1. You need to monitor the metrics and the logs of VM1. What should you use?

A.    The AzurePerformanceDiagnostics extension
B.    Linux Diagnostic Extension (LAD) 3.0
C.    Azure Analysis Services
D.    Azure HDInsight

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use extensions to configure diagnostics on your VMs to collect additional metric data. The basic host metrics are available, but to see more granular and VM-specific metrics, you need to install the Azure diagnostics extension on the VM. The Azure diagnostics extension allows additional monitoring and diagnostics data to be retrieved from the VM.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/linux/tutorial-monitoring

NEW QUESTION 220
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1. You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2. What should you do first?

A.    From the RSV2 blade, click Backup.
From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click Backup.
B.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup.
C.    From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery Services vault.
D.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 job.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm

NEW QUESTION 221
You have a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains an Azure Storage account named Storageaccount1 and a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Storageaccount1 contains the disk files for VM1. You apply a ReadOnly lock to RG1. What can you do from the Azure portal?

A.    Start VM1.
B.    Upload a blob to Storageaccount1.
C.    View the keys of Storageaccount1.
D.    generate an automation script for RG1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
ReadOnly allows authorized users to read a resource, but they can’t delete or update the resource. Applying this lock is similar to restricting all authorized users to the permissions granted by the Reader role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-lock-resources

NEW QUESTION 222
A company is migrating an existing on-premises third-party website to Azure. The website is stateless. The company does not have access to the source code for the website. They do not have the original installer. The number of visitors at the website varies throughout the year. The on-premises infrastructure was resized to accommodate peaks but the extra capacity was not used. You need to implement a virtual machine scale set instance. What should you do?

A.    Use an autoscale setting to scale instances vertically.
B.    Create 100 autoscale settings per resource.
C.    Scale out by one instance when the average CPU usage of one of the instances is over 80 percent.
D.    Use Azure Monitor to create autoscale settings using custom metrics.
E.    Use an autoscale setting with unlimited maximum number of instances.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/autoscale-custom-metric

NEW QUESTION 223
You are responsible for mobile app development for a company. The company develops apps on Windows Mobile, iOS, and Android. You plan to integrate push notifications into every app. You need to be able to send users alerts from a backend server. Which two options can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Web App
B.    Azure Mobile App Service
C.    Azure SQL Database
D.    Azure Notification Hubs
E.    A Virtual Machine

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The Mobile Apps client enables you to register for push notifications with Azure Notification Hubs. The following platforms are supported:
– Xamarin Android releases for API 19 through 24 (KitKat through Nougat)
– Xamarin iOS releases for iOS versions 8.0 and later
– Universal Windows Platform
– Windows Phone 8.1
– Windows Phone 8.0 except for Silverlight applications
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service-mobile/app-service-mobile-dotnet-how-to-use-client-library

Case Study 6 – Humongous Insurance
Humongous Insurance is an insurance company that has three offices in Miami, Tokyo and Bangkok. Each office has 5.000 users.
……

NEW QUESTION 224
You need to resolve the licensing issue before you attempt to assign the license again. What should you do?

A.    From the Directory role blade, modify the directory role.
B.    From the Groups blade, invite the user accounts to a new group.
C.    From the Profile blade, modify the usage location.

Answer: C
Explanation:
License cannot be assigned to a user without a usage location specified.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/licensing-groups-resolve-problems

NEW QUESTION 225
……

Case Study 7 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. The Montreal office has 2,000 employees. The Seattle office has 1,000 employees. The New York office has 200 employees. All the resources used by Contoso are hosted on-premises. Contoso creates a new Azure subscription. The Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant uses a domain named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant uses the P1 pricing tier.
……

NEW QUESTION 230
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A.    an Azure Logic App
B.    an Azure Service Bus
C.    an Azure Notification Hub
D.    an Azure Event Hub

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app

NEW QUESTION 231
……

Case Study 8 – ADatum Corporation
ADatum Corporation is a financial company that has two main offices in New York and Los Angeles. ADatum has a subsidiary named Fabrikam, Inc. that shares the Los Angeles office. ADatum is conducting an initial deployment of Azure services to host new line-of-business applications and is preparing to migrate its existing on-premises workloads to Azure. ADatum uses Microsoft Exchange Online for email.
……

NEW QUESTION 237
You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A.    a multi-site listener
B.    a basic routing rule
C.    a URL path-based routing rule
D.    a basic listener

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url-route-portal

NEW QUESTION 238
……

Case Study 9 – Best For You Organics Company
Best For You Organics Company is a global restaurant franchise that has multiple locations. The company wants to enhance user experiences and vendor integrations. The company plans to implement automated mobile ordering and delivery services.
……

NEW QUESTION 245
You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A.    HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)
B.    Direct Line API
C.    Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D.    Bot Framework Portal
E.    Bot Framework Authentication

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 246
……


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NEW QUESTION 491
Which adverse consequence can occur on a network without BPDU guard?

A.    The oldest switch can be elected as the root bridge.
B.    Unauthorized switches that are connected to the network can cause spanning-tree loops.
C.    Double tagging can cause the switches to experience CAM table overload.
D.    Rogue switches can be difficult to detect.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 492
Which two 802.1x features can you enable by running the IOS authentication priority command? (Choose two.)

A.    forced authorized port state
B.    Telnet authentication
C.    automatic selection
D.    Web authentication
E.    MAC authentication bypass

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 493
If a personal Firewall specifically blocks NTP, which type of blocking is the firewall performing?

A.    service
B.    file
C.    application
D.    network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 494
Which two problems can arise when a proxy firewall serves as the gateway between networks? (Choose two.)

A.    It can cause reduced throughput.
B.    It is unable to prevent diirct comertions to other networks.
C.    It can prevent content caching.
D.    It is unable to provide antivirus protection.
E.    It can ktrtf application support.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 495
What command could you implement in the firewall to conceal internal IP address?

A.    no source-route
B.    no cdp run
C.    no broadcast
D.    no proxy-arp

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 496
Which two configurations can prevent vlan hopping attack from attackers at vlan 10? (Choose two.)

A.    create vlan 99 and change native vlan on trunk to 99
B.    change native vlan on trunk to vlan 10
C.    configure host facing ports with the command ‘switchport mode access’

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 497
What aims to remove the ability to deny an action?

A.    integrity
B.    deniability
C.    accountability
D.    non-repudiation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 498
What are the direct two methods for redirecting web traffic to cisco web security? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco ISE
B.    3rd party proxies
C.    PAC file

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 499
What is a network IPS limitation?

A.    Large network deployments require numerous sensors.
B.    Unable to monitor attacks across entire network.
C.    Something not useful.
D.    Something useful.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 500
Which next-generation encryption algorithms supports four variants?

A.    sha1
B.    sha2
C.    md5
D.    hmac

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 501
For the SNMP V3 access control, how to control access of clients & managers? (Choose two.)

A.    routing filtering
B.    create access list
C.    make managers view
D.    authentication

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 502
About encryption protocol using in MPLS VPN Confidentiality …?

A.    IPsec
B.    SSL
C.    AES
D.    3DES

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 503
Why does ISE require its own certification issued by a trusted CA?

A.    ISE certificate allow guest device to validate it as a trusted network device.
B.    ISE certificate allow it to join the network security framework.
C.    It request certificates for guest device from the CA server based on its own certificate.
D.    It generate certificates for guest device based on it own certificate.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 504
Which term is most closely aligned with the basic purpose of SIEM solution?

A.    Repudation
B.    Non-Repudation
C.    Accountability

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 505
On ASA transparent mode, which two options are true? (Choose two.)

A.    In Transparent mode ASA works like a Router.
B.    In Transparent mode ASA works like a Routed HOP.
C.    In is the default mode of ASA.
D.    It conceals the existence in network from hackers.
E.    It allows a few things which was not allowed in ASA Routed mode.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 506
……


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NEW QUESTION 608
Which two modes for deploying Cisco TrustSec are valid? (Choose two.)

A.    open
B.    high availability
C.    monitor
D.    low-impact
E.    cascade

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 609
An engineer has proposed the deployment of a Cisco ACI fabric solution to introduce automation and zero-touch operation experience to a DC network. Which type of virtualization technology is utilized by the Cisco ACI to encapsulate the traffic inside the fabric and to virtualize the physical infrastructure?

A.    STP
B.    IPsec
C.    VXLAN
D.    NSX

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 610
A customer has an exising WAN circult with capacity of 10 Mbps. The circuit has 6 Mbps of various user traffic and 5 Mbps of real-time audio traffic on average. Which two measures could be taken that avoid loss of real time traffic? (Choose two.)

A.    Increase the WAN circuit bandwidth.
B.    Police the traffic to 3.3 Mbps and allow excess traffic to be remarked to the default queue.
C.    Ensure that real time traffic is prionitized over other traffic.
D.    Configure congestion avoidance mechanism WRED within the prority queue.
E.    Police the traffic to 5 Mbps and allow excess traffic to be remarked toi the default queue.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 611
Management has chosen to implement a top-of-the-rack data center design. Which two benefits of moving to this model are true? (Choose two.)

A.    easier per rack upgrades
B.    decreased cabling costs
C.    directly connected racks in the row
D.    fewer ports required in the aggregation
E.    fewer switches to manage

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 612
During an upgrade of an existing data center, a network team must design segmentation into existing networks. Due to legacy applications, the IP addresses cannot change. Which firewall deployment model meets these requirements?

A.    routed mode
B.    multicontext mode
C.    transparent mode
D.    cluster mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 613
Management has requested that all web traffic be filtered through a proxy without the client’s knowledge. Which mode does an engineer use to design the web proxy to accomplish this task without additional configuration of the web browser?

A.    explicit mode with PAC files
B.    transparent mode without WCCP
C.    transparent mode with WCCP
D.    explicit mode without PAC files

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 614
Which Cisco technology uses the IS-IS protocol to avoid STP in the data center?

A.    FabricPath
B.    TRILL
C.    VPC
D.    VSS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 615
Which two characteristics of MSDP when designing an interdomain multicast network are true? (Choose two.)

A.    MSDP is a mechanism that allows RPs to share information about active sources.
B.    Any network utilizing iBGP or eBGP can use MSDP
C.    In the PIM-SM model, multicast sources and receivers must register with their local RP.
D.    RPs in other domains have full knowledge of sources located in other domains.
E.    The MSDP speaker periodically sends SAs that include all sources in all discovered domains.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 616
An engineer is configuring BGP as the routing protocol between the CE router of an enterprise and the PE router of the service provider. The interconnection between the CE and PE is direct and is provided through a Metro Ethernet link The engineer notices that attermpts to hijack the established eBGP peering session have been made by a network segment that is not between the eBGP peers. Which BGP mechanism can be deployed to protect the session from this type of attack?

A.    BGP outbound route filters.
B.    BGP TTL security check.
C.    BGP AS path length limiting.
D.    BGP communities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 617
An engineer is working on a design solution for a large hub-and-spoke EIGRP network. Which feature helps to make this design more stable while also reducing resource utilization?

A.    Qos
B.    Network summarization
C.    Stub routing
D.    Route filtering

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 618
A network architect is designing a VPN solution for a client with these requirements multicast supported 80% of traffic is spoke to spoke minimal configuration. Which VPN type is the best choice?

A.    VTI
B.    IPsec direct encapsulation
C.    DMVPN
D.    GRE over IPsec

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 619
When designing a Data Center Interconnect solution, which two statements describe benefits of utilizing A-VPLS for Layer 2 extension? (Choose two.)

A.    Redundancy is addressed without enabling Spanning Tree Protocol in the core.
B.    The overlay of the Layer 2 connection on the Layer 3 transport hides any physical convergence.
C.    Integrated Layer 3 technology responds upon failure.
D.    A-VPLS utlzes the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series VSS feature to provide native dual-homing.
E.    A-VPLS provides flow-based load balancing over equal-cost multipath paths.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 620
An engineer is responsible for the network security design of a small branch. Which security segment does the engineer propose to host the public services of the enterprise such as DNS, email, and web?

A.    remote access VPN
B.    service provider edge
C.    public access DMZ
D.    external public network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 621
An ISP is offering two MPLS circuits to an office when one of the links fails. Which routing feature provides the fastest possible convergence to the failover ink?

A.    BFD
B.    UDLD
C.    TTL
D.    Multipath

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 622
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the Data Center traffic flow characteristics from the left onto the correct traffic flow types on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 623
An office has requested to set up a backup link to the internet. Which routing protocol helps to achieve multihorming with two different ISPs?

A.    BGP
B.    IS-IS
C.    eBGP
D.    EIGRP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 624
A network engineer is evaluating an architecture that utilizes VSS for the data center module. Which two advantages of using VSS technology are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It removes the need for Hot Standby Router Profocol.
B.    It removes the need to configure redundant switches with identical policies.
C.    Each switch has a separate control plane.
D.    It is capable of supporting live migration of virtual machines as they move from one physical server to another.
E.    It adds arbitrary forwarding topologies on top of a fixed routed underlay topology.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 625
An engineer is designing an OSPF network with multiple nonbackbone areas connecled to the backbone area via a hub-and-spoke topology. Each hub-and-spoke area has a large number of spoke routers connected to the hub that is functioning as an ABR to provide better segmentation. Which two actions improve the stability of this design? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure hub-and-spoke areas as stub.
B.    Use External Type 2 metric: across the OSPF domain.
C.    Configure hub-and-spake areas as totally stubby.
D.    Implement summarization on the ABR routers of hub-and-spoke areas.
E.    Implement summarization on the ASBR routers in the backbone area.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 626
……


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NEW QUESTION 774
Which statement about the metric calculation in EIGRP is true?

A.    The maximum delay along the path is used.
B.    The mean value of bandwidth between the source and destination is used.
C.    The minimum bandwidth between the source and destination is used.
D.    The minimum delay along the path is used.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 775
Which two piece of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two.)

A.    Whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface.
B.    Whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured.
C.    Which neighbor adjacencies are established.
D.    The EIGRP or BGP autonomous system.
E.    The length of time that a route has been known.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 776
Which two tasks should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Gather the facts.
B.    Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes.
C.    Implement an action plan.
D.    Monitor and verify the resolution.
E.    Analyse the results.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 777
While the packet travels from source to destination through an Internetwork, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two BEST answers.)

A.    The source and destination hardware (interface) addresses change.
B.    The source and destination hardware (interface) addresses remain constant.
C.    The source and destination IP addresses change.
D.    The source and destination IP addresses remain constant.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 778
Which difference in the packet fragmentation feature between IPv4 and IPv6 is true?

A.    Fragmentation performed by IPv4 Sender and forwarding routers IPv6 Only by the sender.
B.    There is no fragmentation in IPv6 because it uses Path MTU Discovery in order to find the smallest packet size to the destination.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 779
By default what is the maximum number of equal metric path BGP uses for load balancing?

A.    6
B.    4
C.    8
D.    16

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 780
What are two limitations of Stateful NAT64? (Choose two.)

A.    No requirement on the nature of IPv6 address assignment.
B.    Lacks in end-to-end address transparency.
C.    Gyros for all.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 781
Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two.)

A.    Voice VLAN
B.    SPAN source ports
C.    DTP

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 782
With PCA and PCB and there are three routers between them and a different MTU value and they want a PCA to run an application with PCB and DF is set so we have to choose …?

A.    MSS
B.    PMTU
C.    GRE
D.    DF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 783
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two.)

A.    The NTP version number of the peer.
B.    The configured NTP servers.
C.    The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized.
D.    Where the clock is synchronized.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 784
You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a fully meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose two.)

A.    A centralized DMVPN solution to simplify connectivity for the enterprise.
B.    A dedicated WAN distribution layer to consolidate connectivity to remote sites.
C.    A collapsed core and distribution layer to minimize costs.
D.    Multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing.
E.    Multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 785
Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network connectivity issue?

A.    Specify the test frequency.
B.    Enable the ICMP echo operation.
C.    Schedule the ICMP echo operation.
D.    Verify the ICMP echo operation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 786
Which technology can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch?

A.    HSRP
B.    VSS
C.    VRRP
D.    NHRP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 787
Which two facts must you take into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose two.)

A.    DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN login.
B.    PPPoE supports a maxiumum of 10 clients per customer premise equipment.
C.    DDR is not supported.
D.    You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface.
E.    An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 788
What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcast? (Choose two.)

A.    It provides reliable TCP transport.
B.    It enables mulitple servers to send video streams simultaneously.
C.    It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously.
D.    It supports distributed applications.
E.    It enables multiple clients to receive video streams simultaneously.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 789
……


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NEW QUESTION 620
Which of the following would indicate that a circuit speed should be increased?

A.    Low latency
B.    Low bandwidth consumption
C.    High number of SIEM alerts
D.    High packet drops

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 621
A technician has installed an older IP camera as a temporary replacement for a recently failed newer one. The technician notices that when the camera’s video stream is off, the ping roundtrip time between the camera and the network DVR is consistently less than 1ms without dropped packets. When the camera video stream is turned on, the ping roundtrip time increases dramatically, and network communication is slow and inconsistent. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue in this scenario?

A.    VLAN mismatch
B.    Duplex mismatch
C.    Cat 6 RX/TX reversed
D.    Damaged cable

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 622
Wireless users have been experiencing connectivity problems. Investigation shows neighboring wireless appliances, which are not connected to the network, have been on the same 5GHz frequency to communicate. Which of the following wireless performance problem concepts defines this issue?

A.    Interference
B.    Distance limitation
C.    Signal-to-noise ratio
D.    Absorption

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 623
Which of the following BEST explains the purpose of signature management as a mitigation technique?

A.    Hardening devices
B.    Segmenting the network
C.    Detecting malicious activity
D.    Restricting user credentials

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 624
A network technician installs a web server on the firewall. Which of the following methods should the technician implement to allow access to outside users without giving access to the inside network?

A.    VLAN
B.    DMZ
C.    SNMP
D.    NTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 625
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) tasks the network engineer with protecting the network from outside attacks. Placing which of the following devices on the network perimeter would provide the MOST security for the system?

A.    Firewall
B.    NGFW
C.    Content filter
D.    IDS/IPS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 626
Management has requested that a wireless solution be installed at a new office. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the network technician should do?

A.    Order equipment
B.    Create network diagrams
C.    Perform a site survey
D.    Create an SSID

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 627
A technician has deployed an additional DHCP server for redundancy. Clients in certain subnets are not receiving DHCP leases from the new DHCP server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.    The new DHCP server’s IP address was not added to the router’s IP helper list.
B.    The new DHCP server is not receiving the requests from the clients.
C.    The ARP cache of the new DHCP server needs to be updated.
D.    The ARP table on the router needs to be cleared.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 628
Greater bandwidth and availability are required between two switches. Each switch has multiple 100Mb Ethernet ports available. Which of the following should a technician implement to help achieve these requirements?

A.    Spanning tree
B.    Clustering
C.    Power management
D.    Port aggregation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 629
A technician is configuring a new server with an IP address of 10.35.113.47 on the 10.35.112.0 subnet to allow for the maximum number of hosts. When configuring network settings, which of the following is the correct subnet mask?

A.    10.35.112.0/30
B.    10.35.112.0/24
C.    255.255.240.0
D.    255.255.248.0
E.    255.255.255.0

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 630
Ann, a customer, recently upgraded her SOHO Internet to gigabit fiber from cable. She was previously getting speeds around 75Mbps down and 25Mbps up. After the upgrade, Ann runs a speed test on her desktop and gets results of 1000Mbps down and 100Mbps up. A technician connects directly to the router and sees the correct 1000Mbps speeds. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? (Choose two.)

A.    All ports should be configured for full duplex.
B.    There is a 10/100 switch on the network.
C.    The connections are using Cat 5 cable.
D.    The connections are using Cat 6 cable.
E.    There is a transceiver mismatch at the fiber termination point.
F.    Signal attenuation on the new fiber has reached the upper limits.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 631
A user reports intermittent performance issues on a segment of the network. According to the troubleshooting methodology, which of the following steps should the technician do NEXT after collecting initial information from the customer?

A.    Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B.    Establish a theory of probable cause.
C.    Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
D.    Duplicate the problem, if possible.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 632
Which of the following protocols is associated with a three-way handshake?

A.    UDP
B.    ICMP
C.    GRE
D.    TCP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 633
……


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NEW QUESTION 277
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The application must be exposed to external users over ports 80 and 443 and must meet the following requirements:
– Handle more than 1024 simultaneous connections
– Support Windows authentication
– Support HTTP/2 over TLS
– Include response caching
– Protect against denial-of-service attacks
You need to deploy the application to an on-premises web server.
Solution: You deploy the application to HTTP.sys.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/fundamentals/servers/httpsys?view=aspnetcore-2.1

NEW QUESTION 278
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The landing page of the application contains over 100 small JPEG images, including many images that have embedded text. Mobile device users report performance issues when loading the landing page. You debug the application and determine that the number of HTTP requests is causing the issue. You need to improve the performance of the landing page.
Solution: Update the web server to use HTTP/2.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 279
You are developing a NuGet package that will be used by applications that target multiple .NET runtime environments. You need to include NuGet package references within application project files. What should you use?

A.    a PackageReference node
B.    the packages.config file
C.    the .nupkg folder name
D.    the project.json file

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/nuget/consume-packages/package-references-in-project-files

NEW QUESTION 280
You are designing an ASP.NET Core MVC application. You need to combine two existing models to create a view. Which MVC component should you use?

A.    ViewComponent
B.    View
C.    Controller
D.    Model

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/tutorials/first-mvc-app/adding-controller?view=aspnetcore-2.1

NEW QUESTION 281
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application by using Microsoft Visual Studio Professional. You plan to deploy the app to a Microsoft Azure App Services Web App. You must be able to edit files in the web application directly without having to redeploy or use other means of connecting to the web application. You need to update the Web.config file to enable remote error messages. What should you do?

A.    Download the publishsettings file from Azure portal.
Create an FTP connection to the Azure Web App and update the file.
B.    Use Visual Studio to remotely debug and update the file.
C.    Create a Web.config transform and deploy a debug build.
D.    Use the Visual Studio Server Explorer remote view feature to update the file.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 282
You develop a new ASP.NET MVC application. You use local storage to maintain state. The localStorage object’s setItem method is failing to store a value. Which two scenarios will cause the failure? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    The user has disabled local storage in the browser.
B.    The value being stored is a JavaScript array.
C.    The new Value property was used prior to calling the setItem method.
D.    The value being stored exceeds 10 MB in size.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://www.w3schools.com/html/html5_webstorage.asp
https://html.spec.whatwg.org/multipage/webstorage.html#dom-storage-setitem

NEW QUESTION 283
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application uses a SQL Server database and a SQL Server login and password. You need to ensure that the password for the SQL Server login is not stored in plain text. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Encrypt the connection string by using aspnet_wp.exe.
B.    Encrypt the connection string by using aspnet_regiis.exe.
C.    Ensure that there is a valid encryptionKey element in the web.config file.
D.    Ensure that there is a valid machineKey element in the web.config file.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://weblogs.asp.net/owscott/421063

NEW QUESTION 284
Hotspot
You are developing an ASP.NET Core Web API. API methods must use JSON Web Tokens (JWT) to authenticate the method caller. You need to implement JWT authentication. How should you complete the code? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.c-sharpcorner.com/article/jwt-json-web-token-authentication-in-asp-net-core/

NEW QUESTION 285
Drag and Drop
You are developing an ASP.NET Core web application that uses sensitive configuration data. You plan to develop the application locally and then deploy the application to a Microsoft Azure App Services Web App for testing and production. You must securely store sensitive configuration data and be able to share the data across multiple projects. You need to ensure that sensitive data is stored in local configuration files. Which technologies should you implement? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct environments. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/security/app-secrets?view=aspnetcore-2.1&tabs=windows

NEW QUESTION 286
Drag and Drop
You are developing an ASP.NET Core application. You plan to use YAML as the configuration language. You create a custom YAML configuration parser. You need to implement a mechanism to support reading and applying these YAML configurations. How should you complete the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://andrewlock.net/creating-a-custom-iconfigurationprovider-in-asp-net-core-to-parse-yaml/

NEW QUESTION 287
Hotspot
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The web application must support older web browsers and implemented JavaSript features. You must use a polyfill to support the JavaScript Promise object in all browsers. You need to implement a built-in ASP.NET Core tag Helper to support polyfills. How should you complete the markup? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 288
You develop an ASP.NET web application that is self-hosted using Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) in a Microsoft Azure Worker role. The web application throws exceptions. You need to resolve the exceptions.
Solution: Change the application startup code to debug the OWIN pipeline.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
We need to install the Microsoft.Owin.Diagnostics package before we change the startup code. The Microsoft.Owin.Diagnostics package contains middleware that catches unhandled exceptions and displays an HTML page with error details.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/aspnet/overview/owin-and-katana/getting-started-with-owin-and-katana#add-owin-diagnostics

NEW QUESTION 289
A company has an enterprise library that targets the full .NET framework. You must convert the library to target .NET Standard. You replace the original project file a .NET Standard project file. When you compile the library, the compiler throws the following errors:
error cs0579: Duplicate ‘System.Reflection.AssemblyCompanyAttribute’
error cs0579: Duplicate ‘System.Reflection.AssemblyVersionAttribute’
You need to resolve the errors. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Delete the bin folder and recompile the library.
B.    Add the GenerateAssemblyInfo property to the .NET Standard project file set the value to False.
C.    Add the GenerateAssemblyInfo property to the .NET Standard project file set the value to True.
D.    Delete the Properties folder and recompile the library.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 290
You plan to deploy an ASP.NET Core MVC web application to an internal server cluster that runs Kestrel on Linux. The server cluster hosts many other web applications. All applications are behind a Nginx load balancer. You need to ensure that the application meets the following requirements:
– Secure against man-in-the-middle attacks
– Allow Open ID Connect authentication
– Cache responses using HTTP caching
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Bind Kestrel to port 0.
B.    Terminate Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) in Kestrel.
C.    Configure ASP.NET Core to use forwarded headers.
D.    Enable the proxy_cache_bypass module.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: When the port number 0 is specified, Kestrel dynamically binds to an available port. When the app is run, the console window output indicates the dynamic port where the app can be reached.
C: Because requests are forwarded by reverse proxy, we must use the Forwarded Headers Middleware from the Microsoft.AspNetCore.HttpOverrides package. The middleware updates the Request.Scheme, using the X-Forwarded-Proto header, so that redirect URIs and other security policies work correctly.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/host-and-deploy/linux-nginx?view=aspnetcore-2.2
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/fundamentals/servers/kestrel?view=aspnetcore-2.2

NEW QUESTION 291
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about LUNs? (Choose two.)

A.    A LUN is accessed using an NFS mount.
B.    A LUN is a logical representation of a SCSI disk.
C.    LUNs are not supported on a single-node cluster.
D.    LUNs should never be created in the SVM root volume.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 2
Which three protocols are used for DAS connections? (Choose three.)

A.    SCSI
B.    FCoE
C.    NFS
D.    ATA
E.    SATA

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 3
You are asked to extend ONTAP to AWS with ONTAP Cloud. You need to deploy ONTAP Cloud in HA mode. Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed in different AWS regions.
B.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed in different AWS availability zones.
C.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed in private and public clouds to achieve high availability.
D.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed with NPS to achieve high availability.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What are three examples of hypervisor platforms? (Choose three.)

A.    Citrix XenServer
B.    SUSE Linux
C.    Microsoft Hyper-V
D.    VMware vSphere
E.    Microsoft Exchange 2016

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 5
How are virtual LANs (VLANs) used?

A.    to combine two or more physical ports
B.    to segment a physical port into multiple logical interfaces (LIFs)
C.    to segment a network into multiple logical networks
D.    to combine two or more logical interfaces (LIFs)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
A NAS client connects to a volume that is on a different node than the LIF that it is accessing. In this scenario, the client is said to have which type of access to the volume?

A.    external
B.    round robin
C.    indirect
D.    multipath

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which ONTAP network type requires a private network?

A.    management network
B.    cluster network
C.    SP/RLM network
D.    data network

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two phrases define “server virtualization”? (Choose two.)

A.    using an application client such as Outlook to manage a mailbox
B.    running a server from a USB drive
C.    running multiple operating systems on a single host
D.    using a hypervisor to host application servers

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 9
What are two benefits of storage virtualization? (Choose two.)

A.    efficient utilization
B.    increased flexibility
C.    decreased CPU utilization
D.    decreased complexity

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
You are required to provision LUN-based disk devices for a Windows cluster using ONTAP Cloud as the storage platform. Which transport would you use in this scenario?

A.    FC
B.    iSCSI
C.    FCoE
D.    NFS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
A new ONTAP system is being deployed and a volume is being provisioned that will be the destination for long-term storage of many other volumes in the production environment. Which SnapVault feature provides this capability?

A.    storage efficiency
B.    block transfer
C.    fan-in deployment
D.    disaster recovery

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
You are deploying several AltaVault appliance instances in virtualized and physical environments. In this scenario, which two connection methods you would use during the initial setup? (Choose two.)

A.    from a serial connection for physical appliances
B.    from an SSH session for physical appliances
C.    from client console for virtualized environments
D.    from an SSH session for virtualized environments

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 13
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NEW QUESTION 1
What are two methods used to protect the data center perimeter? (Choose two.)

A.    session authentication
B.    DDoS protection
C.    asset classification
D.    network subnetting

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 2
Your data center uses a Virtual Chassis Fabric. The ToR switches have 48 ports and each rack supports 20 servers. Each server has two ports that are configured as a LAG. You need to implement link level redundancy but you cannot use two ports on the same device for this redundancy. Which type of connection should you use to complete this task?

A.    MC-LAG
B.    RTG
C.    LAG
D.    ESI

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NEW QUESTION 3
Which two statements about data center design are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    The most efficient traffic flow pattern is 50% east-west and 50% north-south.
B.    A data center that provides hosted services should scale based on customer demands.
C.    A multitier design provides better performance as the number of applications increase.
D.    An application may query several resources in response to a single user request.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company is deploying a private cloud based on OpenStack and has selected Contrail Networking as its SDN controller. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Underlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
B.    MPLS over UDP tunnels are supported.
C.    Overlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
D.    MPLS over GRE tunnels are supported.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 5
You are asked to provide a data center design proposal. The customer wants each rack to be managed as a single unit with the shortest possible cable lengths. Which deployment model meets these requirements?

A.    top of rack
B.    middle of rack
C.    middle of row
D.    end of row

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
From a network management perspective, a Virtual Chassis consisting of five physical switches will appear as how many devices?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
You are re-designing a traditional multitiered data center into a modern spine-and-leaf data center architecture. In this scenario, which two tiers are collapsed? (Choose two.)

A.    distribution
B.    WAN
C.    access
D.    core

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the Contrail vRouter? (Choose two.)

A.    It is forwarding plane that runs software on a virtualized server.
B.    It extends the network form physical routers and switches into an overlay network hosted in virtual server.
C.    It is responsible for providing the management, control, and analytics functions of the virtualized network.
D.    It provides the logically centralized control plane and management plane of the system.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two statements are correct about a VCF deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    You are allowed up to four spine devices.
B.    The fabric is managed as a single logical device.
C.    An EX4300 switch must be deployed as a spine device.
D.    You must deploy a QFX5100 as a leaf device.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
You want to use the Intrusion Prevention System features of a vSRX virtual firewall to protect systems from attacks embedded in traffic. In this scenario, which three technologies would be used? (Choose three.)

A.    protocol decodes
B.    zero-day protection
C.    traffic normalization
D.    application firewall
E.    application tracking

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 11
When considering data center security, which component is often seen as unimportant but is really the first line of defense?

A.    guest access
B.    native VLAN configuration
C.    RBAC
D.    physical security

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
You are implementing a Virtual Chassis Fabric using QFX5110 devices. Which two statements are true in this scenario according to Juniper Networks recommendations? (Choose two.)

A.    Spine devices must assume the RE role.
B.    Leaf devices must have a direct link to all other leaf devices.
C.    Spine devices must assume the line card role.
D.    Leaf devices must have a direct link to all spine devices.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 13
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Your company uses Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) to deploy Windows 10 to new computers. The company purchases 1,000 new computers. You need to ensure that the Hyper-V feature is enabled on the computers during the deployment. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add a task sequence step that adds a provisioning package.
B.    In a Group Policy object (GPO), from Computer Configuration, configure Application Control Policies.
C.    Add a custom command to the Unattend.xml file.
D.    Add a configuration setting to Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
E.    Add a task sequence step that runs dism.exe.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/create-a-windows-10-reference-image

NEW QUESTION 78
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. Your company purchases a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to migrate the Documents folder of users to Microsoft OneDrive for Business. What should you configure?

A.    One Drive Group Policy settings
B.    Roaming User profiles
C.    Enterprise State Roaming
D.    Folder Redirection Group Policy settings

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/redirect-known-folders?redirectSourcePath=%252fen-us%252farticle%252fredirect-windows-known-folders-to-onedrive-e1b3963c-7c6c-4694-9f2f-fb8005d9ef12

NEW QUESTION 79
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. A service named Application1 is configured as shown in the exhibit:

You discover that a user used the Service1 account to sign in to Computer1 and deleted some files. You need to ensure that the identity used by Application1 cannot be used by a user to sign in to sign in to the desktop on Computer1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Solution: On Computer1, you assign Service1 the deny log on locally user right.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/deny-log-on-locally

NEW QUESTION 80
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. A service named Application1 is configured as shown in the exhibit:

You discover that a user used the Service1 account to sign in to Computer1 and deleted some files. You need to ensure that the identity used by Application1 cannot be used by a user to sign in to sign in to the desktop on Computer1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Solution: On Computer1, you assign Service1 the deny log on as a service user right.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/deny-log-on-as-a-service

NEW QUESTION 81
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to view the settings to Computer1 by Group Policy objects (GPOs) in the domain and local Group Policies. Which command should you run?

A.    gpresult
B.    secedit
C.    gpupdate
D.    gpfixup

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/gpresult

NEW QUESTION 82
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains computers that run Windows 10. You need to provide a user with the ability to remotely create and modify shares on the computers. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which group should you add the user?

A.    Power Users
B.    Remote Management Users
C.    Administrators
D.    Network Configuration Operators

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 83
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 belongs to a workgroup. You run the following commands on Computer1:
New-LocalUser -Name User1 -NoPassword
Add-LocalGroupMember User -Member User1
What is the effect of the configurations?

A.    User1 is prevented from signing in until the user is assigned additional user rights.
B.    User1 appears on the sign-in screen and can sign in without a password.
C.    User1 is prevented from signing in until an administrator manually sets a password for the user.
D.    User1 appears on the sign-in screen and must set a new password on the first sign-in attempts.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/microsoft.powershell.localaccounts/new-localuser?view=powershell-5.1

NEW QUESTION 84
You have a public computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. You need to provide a user named User1 with the ability to modify the permissions of Folder1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which NTFS permission should you assign to User1?

A.    Full Control
B.    Modify
C.    Write
D.    Read & Execute

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2008-R2-and-2008/cc754344%28v%3dws.10%29

NEW QUESTION 85
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains a user named User1. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You join Computer1 to Azure AD. You enable Remote Desktop on Computer1. User1 attempts to connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop and receives the following error message: “The logon attempt failed”. You need to ensure that the user can connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop. What should you do first?

A.    In Azure AD, assign User1 the Cloud device administrator role.
B.    From the local Group Policy, modify the Allow log on through Remote Desktop Services user right.
C.    In Azure AD, assign User1 the Security administrator role.
D.    On Computer1, create a local user and add the new user to the Remote Desktop Users group.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/allow-log-on-through-remote-desktop-services

NEW QUESTION 86
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Access to the Internet is provided through the main office. The branch office contains 25 computers that run Windows 10. The computers contain small hard drives that have very little free disk space. You need to prevent the computers in the branch office from downloading updates from peers on the network. What should you do?

A.    From the Settings app, modify the Delivery Optimizations settings.
B.    Configure the network connections as metered connections.
C.    Configure the computers to use BranchCache in hosted cache mode.
D.    Configure the updates to use the Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) channel.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-branchcache

NEW QUESTION 87
Drag and Drop
You enable Windows PowerShell remoting on a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to limit which PowerShell cmdlets can be used in a remote session. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.petri.com/powershell-remoting-restricting-user-commands

NEW QUESTION 88
Hotspot
You are a network administrator at your company. A user attempts to start a computer and receives the following error message: “Bootmgr is missing”. You need to resolve the issue. You start the computer in recovery mode. Which command should you run next? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://neosmart.net/wiki/bootrec/#Bootrec_in_Windows10

NEW QUESTION 89
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. You need to log any users who take ownership of the files in Folder1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Modify the folder attributes of Folder1.
B.    Modify the Advanced Security Settings for Folder1.
C.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Audit Sensitive Privilege Use setting.
D.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Audit File System setting.
E.    Install the Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://www.netwrix.com/how_to_detect_who_changed_file_or_folder_owner.html

NEW QUESTION 90
You are a network administrator at your company. The company uses an application that checks for network connectivity to a server by sending a ping request to the IPv6 address of the server replies, the application loads. A user cannot open the application. You manually send the ping request from the computer of the user and the server does not reply. You send the ping request from your computer and the server replies. You need to ensure that the ping request works from the user’s computer. Which Windows Defender firewall rule is a possible cause of the issue?

A.    File and Printer Sharing (NB-Datagram-In)
B.    File and Printer Sharing (Echo request ICMPv6-Out)
C.    File and Printer Sharing (NB-Datagram-Out)
D.    File and Printer Sharing (Echo Request ICMPv6-In)

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/windows-vista/allow-pings-icmp-echo-request-through-your-windows-vista-firewall/

NEW QUESTION 91
……


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NEW QUESTION 78
Your company uses Windows Update for Business. The research department has several computers that have specialized hardware and software installed. You need to prevent the video drivers from being updated automatically by using Windows Update.
Solution: From the Settings app, you clear the Give me updates for other Microsoft products when I update Windows check box.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.stigviewer.com/stig/microsoft_windows_server_2012_member_server/2013-07-25/finding/WN12-CC-000024

NEW QUESTION 79
Your company uses Windows Update for Business. The research department has several computers that have specialized hardware and software installed. You need to prevent the video drivers from being updated automatically by using Windows Update.
Solution: From the Device Installation settings in a Group Policy object (GPO), you enable Specify search order for device driver source locations, and then you select Do not search Windows Update.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.stigviewer.com/stig/microsoft_windows_server_2012_member_server/2013-07-25/finding/WN12-CC-000024

NEW QUESTION 80
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The domain contains 500 laptops that run Windows 8.1 Professional. The users of the laptops work from home. Your company uses Microsoft Intune, the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), and Windows Configuration Designer to manage client computers. The company purchases 500 licenses for Windows 10 Enterprise. You verify that the hardware and applications on the laptops are compatible with Windows 10. The users will bring their laptop to the office, where the IT department will deploy Windows 10 to the laptops while the users wait. You need to recommend a deployment method for the laptops that will retain their installed applications. The solution must minimize how long it takes to perform the deployment. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    an in-place upgrade
B.    a clean installation by using a Windows Configuration Designer provisioning package
C.    Windows AutoPilot
D.    a clean installation and the User State Migration Tool (USMT)

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios#in-place-upgrade

NEW QUESTION 81
You have a computer named Computer5 that has Windows 10 installed. You create a Windows PowerShell script named config.ps1. You need to ensure that config.ps1 runs after feature updates are installed on Computer5. Which file should you modify on Computer5?

A.    Unattend.xml
B.    Unattend.bat
C.    SetupConfig.ini
D.    LiteTouch.wsf

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.joseespitia.com/2017/06/01/how-to-run-a-post-script-after-a-windows-10-feature-upgrade/

NEW QUESTION 82
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain and three sites named Site1, Site2, and Site3. Each site is associated to two subnets. Site1 contains two subnets named SubnetA and SubnetB. All the client computers in the forest run Windows 10. Delivery Optimization is enabled. You have a computer named Computer1 that is in SubnetA. From which hosts will Computer1 download updates?

A.    the computers in Site1 only
B.    any computer in the domain
C.    the computers in SubnetA only
D.    any computer on the network

Answer: C
Explanation:
Delivery Optimization allows updates from other clients that connect to the Internet using the same public IP as the target client (NAT).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-delivery-optimization

NEW QUESTION 83
You install a feature update on a computer that runs Windows 10. How many days do you have to roll back the update?

A.    5
B.    10
C.    14
D.    30

Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft has changed the time period associated with operating system rollbacks with Windows 10 version 1607, decreasing it to 10 days. Previously, Windows 10 had a 30-day rollback period.
https://redmondmag.com/articles/2016/08/04/microsoft-shortens-windows-10-rollback-period.aspx

NEW QUESTION 84
You need to assign the same deployment profile to all the computers that are configured by using Windows Autopilot. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Join the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
B.    Assign a Windows AutoPilot deployment profile to a group.
C.    Join the computers to an on-premises Active Directory domain.
D.    Create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group that has dynamic membership rules and uses the operatingSystem tag.
E.    Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that is linked to a domain.
F.    Create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group that has dynamic membership rules and uses the ZTDID tag.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
https://www.petervanderwoude.nl/post/automatically-assign-windows-autopilot-deployment-profile-to-windows-autopilot-devices/

NEW QUESTION 85
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. All users have computers that run Windows 10. The computers are joined to Azure AD and managed by using Microsoft Intune. You need to ensure that you can centrally monitor the computers by using Windows Analytics. What should you create in Intune?

A.    a device configuration profile
B.    a conditional access policy
C.    a device compliance policy
D.    an update policy

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.scconfigmgr.com/2019/03/27/windows-analytics-onboarding-with-intune/

NEW QUESTION 86
Your company has a System Center Configuration Manager deployment that uses hybrid mobile device management (MDM). All Windows 10 devices are Active Directory domain-joined. You plan to migrate from hybrid MDM to Microsoft Intune standalone. You successfully run the Intune Data Importer tool. You need to complete the migration. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    In Intune, add a device enrollment manager (DEM).
B.    Change the tenant MDM authority to Intune.
C.    Assign all users Intune licenses.
D.    Create a new Intune tenant.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/migrate-hybridmdm-to-intunesa
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/migrate-prepare-intune
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/change-mdm-authority

NEW QUESTION 87
You need to meet the requirements for the MKG department users. What should you do?

A.    Assign the MKG department users the Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business.
B.    Download the APPX file for App1 from Microsoft Store for Business.
C.    Add App1 to the private store.
D.    Assign the MKG department users the Basic Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business.
E.    Acquire App1 from Microsoft Store for Business.

Answer: E
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/distribute-apps-from-your-private-store

NEW QUESTION 88
You use Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP) to protect computers that run Windows 10. You need to assess the differences between the configuration of Windows Defender ATP and the Microsoft-recommended configuration baseline. Which tool should you use?

A.    Windows Defender Security Center
B.    Windows Analytics
C.    Windows Defender ATP Power BI App
D.    Microsoft Secure Score

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/overview-secure-score

NEW QUESTION 89
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 500 computers that run Windows 10. All the computers are managed by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You need to enable co-management. What should you do first?

A.    Deploy the Microsoft Intune client.
B.    Raise the forest functional level.
C.    Upgrade Configuration Manager to Current Branch.
D.    Raise the domain functional level.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Co-management requires Configuration Manager version 1710 or later.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/overview#prerequisites

NEW QUESTION 90
You need to enable Windows Defender Credential Guard on computers that run Windows 10. What should you install on the computers?

A.    Hyper-V
B.    Windows Defender Application Guard
C.    a guarded host
D.    containers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 91
Hotspot
Your company uses Microsoft Intune to manage Windows 10, Android, and iOS devices. Several users purchase new iPads and Android devices. You need to tell the users how to enroll their device in Intune. What should you instruct the users to use for each device? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
The Intune Company Portal app is used to enroll Android, iOS, macOS, and Windows devices.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-device-android-company-portal
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-your-device-in-intune-ios
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-your-device-in-intune-macos-cp

NEW QUESTION 92
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains an Azure Log Analytics workspace. You deploy a new computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is in a workgroup. You need to ensure that you can use Log Analytics to query events from Computer1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    Configure the commercial ID
B.    Join Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C.    Create an event subscription
D.    Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/agent-windows

NEW QUESTION 93
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The company has a Volume Licensing Agreement and uses a product key to activate Windows 10. You plan to deploy Windows 10 Pro to 200 new computers by using the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) and Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the new computers will be configured to have the correct product key during the installation. What should you configure?

A.    a WDS boot image
B.    an MDT task sequence
C.    the Device settings in Azure AD
D.    a Windows AutoPilot deployment profile

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/deploy-a-windows-10-image-using-mdt#a-href-idsec08astep-8-deploy-the-windows-10-client-image

NEW QUESTION 94
……


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NEW QUESTION 417
You are troubleshooting a port configuration. Interface e1/1 is configured by using port profiles. Which command do you run to view the actual command that were applied to interface e1/1?

A.    Show port-profile virtual usage
B.    Show run interface eth1/1 expand-port-profile
C.    Shows port-profile sync-status
D.    Show run interface eth1/1

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 418
Which two effects of enabling the persistent FC ID feature are true? (Choose two.)

A.    N Ports receive the same FC IDs when they disconnect from and reconnect to any port on the same switch.
B.    The tcdomain automatically adds entries to the FC ID database when a device connects to a port.
C.    The volatile cache stores up to 4,000 entries containing the WWN to FC ID binding.
New entries overwrite the oldest entries in the cache if the cache is full.
D.    The contents of the volatile cache are discarded when a server reboots.
E.    The FC IDs used in the fcdomain are saved after you reboot the switch.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 419
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled on FC-SW1?

A.    NPIV
B.    NPV
C.    FCIP
D.    iSCSI

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 420
Refer to the exhibit. The firmware fails while using AutoInstall. What cloud cause this issue?

A.    A maximum of two active partitions is permitted when using AutoInstall.
B.    The bootflash partition exceeded 70 percent of the capacity of the flash drive.
C.    The license for the Advance Services package must be installed.
D.    The workspace partition must be at least 10 percent of the flash drive.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 421
Refer to the exhibit. Why did the configuration synchronization rollback fail?

A.    The switch profile is incorrect.
B.    The checkpoint test does not exist.
C.    The rollback patch is not empty.
D.    The yPC is not configured

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 422
Refer to the exhibit. The VEMs fail to join a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch. You determine that a system VLAN must be set on a system-uplink port profile. Which VLAN do you configure as a system VLAN?

A.    40
B.    10
C.    20
D.    30

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 423
You have a vPC that is in a blocking state. Which issue can cause this problem?

A.    You have a MAC address filter applied.
B.    You have Bridge Assurance enabled on the vPC.
C.    VLANs are missing from the peer link.
D.    You have a Type 1 Configuration Element Mismatch.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 424
Refer to the exhibit. No OSPF neighborship exists between N5K-1 and N7K-1. Which configuration resolves this issue?

A.    (config)# router ospf 1
(config-router)# network 192.168.103.152 255.255.255.252 area 0
B.    (config)# ip router ospf 1 area 0
C.    (config)# router ospf 1
(config-router)# network 192.168.103.152 0.0.0.3 area 0
D.    (config-rf)# ip router ospf 1 area 0

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 425
Which connectivity topology is valid for Cisco UCS B-Series Servers?

A.    a standalone Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect that has a dual uplink from the IOM to the Fabric Interconnect
B.    dual Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects without L1-L1 and L2-L2 connections
C.    dual Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects without 12-12 connections
D.    IOM bypass

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 426
You are troubleshooting LACP issues on a Cisco Nexus platform. Which two LACP modes can you view by using the show lacp interface command? (Choose two.)

A.    passive
B.    active
C.    standby
D.    auto-negotiate
E.    on

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 427
You are configuring a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch. Which configuration can be implemented for VXLAN BGP EVPN?

A.    VXLAN BGP EVPN by using an NVE interface in a default VRF.
B.    RACLs on the Layer 3 uplinks for the VXLAN traffic.
C.    QoS classification for the VXLAN traffic on all of the interfaces.
D.    DHCP snooping on the VXLAN VLANs.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 428
Refer to the exhibit. You are troubleshooting a vPC+ configuration issue. Which reason could cause the issue?

A.    The peer-keepalive destination must match on each leaf switch.
B.    The FabricPath switch ID between the leaf switches must be the same.
C.    The spanning tree is not used in Cisco FabricPath, so the command on port channel 1 must be removed.
D.    The spanning tree port type on port channel 1 must be set to trunk.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 429
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco UCS Manager reports that the number of disks assigned to a server exceeds the number of available disk slots. What could cause this issue?

A.    The fault detection tests on the disk drive failed.
B.    Communication between the fabric interconnects failed.
C.    Communication between Cisco UCS Manager and the server failed.
D.    The Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server is connected incorrectly to the fabric interconnects.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 430
You configure two external Layer 3 networks on the same node by using BGP. The network fails to establish BGP adjacencies. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?

A.    Explicitly define the loopback addresses on the node.
B.    Use OSPF to create a peer that uses external networks.
C.    Configure the router ID to use the interface IP address used to establish the BGP connection.
D.    Configure the router ID to use the loopback interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/basic-config/b_ACI_Config_Guide/b_ACI_Config_Guide_chapter_0110.pdf

NEW QUESTION 431
……


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NEW QUESTION 130
Your company has an Azure subscription that contains the following unused resources:
– 20 user accounts in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
– Five groups in Azure AD
– 10 public IP addresses
– 10 network interfaces
You need to reduce the Azure costs for the company.
Solution: You remove the unused public IP addresses.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-cost-recommendations#reduce-costs-by-deleting-or-reconfiguring-idle-virtual-network-gateways

NEW QUESTION 131
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A support plan solution that gives you best practice information, health status and notifications, and 24/7 access to billing information at the lowest possible cost is a Standard support plan.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Developer
C.    Basic
D.    Premier

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/plans/

NEW QUESTION 132
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines. You need to ensure that the services running on the virtual machines are available if a single data center fails.
Solution: You deploy the virtual machines to two or more resource groups.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/regions-and-availability

NEW QUESTION 133
In which Azure support plans can you open a new support request?

A.    Premier and Professional Direct only.
B.    Premier, Professional Direct, and Standard only.
C.    Premier, Professional Direct, Standard, and Developer only.
D.    Premier, Professional Direct, Standard, Developer, and Basic.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/plans/

NEW QUESTION 134
What is guaranteed in an Azure Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A.    uptime
B.    feature availability
C.    bandwidth
D.    performance

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/legal/sla/summary/

NEW QUESTION 135
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
An Azure service is available to all Azure customers when it is in public preview.

A.    No change is needed.
B.    private preview
C.    development
D.    an Enterprise Agreement (EA) subscription

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.neowin.net/news/several-more-azure-services-now-available-in-private-public-preview/

NEW QUESTION 136
Your company has 10 departments. The company plans to implement an Azure environment. You need to ensure that each department can use a different payment option for the Azure services it consumes. What should you create for each department?

A.    a reservation
B.    a subscription
C.    a resource group
D.    a container instance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 137
Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each department will be managed by a department administrator. You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    multiple subscriptions
B.    multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories
C.    multiple regions
D.    multiple resource groups

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 138
A company has the requirement to have an automated process in place which would upload logs to an Azure SQL database every week. Reports would then be generated from the SQL database. Which of the following would you use for this requirement?

A.    The AzCopy tool
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    Azure HDInsight
D.    Data Migration Assistant

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use the Azure Data Factory to create a pipeline that can be used to copy data. Below is an excerpt from the Microsoft documentation on the connector for SQL server.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/connector-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 139
A company is planning on deploying an application onto Azure. The application will be based on the .Net core programming language. The application would be hosted using Azure Web apps. Below is part of the various requirements for the application:
– Gives the ability for the testing team to view the different components of an application and see the calls being made between the different application components
– Helps business analyse how many users actually return to the application
– Ensuring IT administrators get alerts based on critical conditions being met in the application
Which of the following service would be best suited for fulfilling the requirement of “Helps business analyse how many users actually return to the application”?

A.    Application Insights
B.    Azure Service Health
C.    Azure Advisor
D.    Azure Policies

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/usage-retention

NEW QUESTION 140
A company wants to deploy an application to Azure. The application has the below requirements:
– Give the ability to install and provide access to the full .Net framework
– Allow administrative access to the operating system
– Provide a level of redundancy if an Azure region fails
Solution: You decide to deploy 2 Azure Virtual Machines in 2 separate regions. And then you create a Traffic Manager Profile
Does this solution meet the requirement?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Yes, this will meet all the requirements. Since you are using Azure Virtual Machines, IT administrators can get the required access. You can also then get the required access to the underlying software including the .Net framework. Using a Traffic Manager profile along with the failover routing policy can ensure the requirement for redundancy is fulfilled.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-overview

NEW QUESTION 141
A team has an Azure CosmosDB account. A solution needs to be in place to generate an alert from Azure Log Analytics when a query request charge exceeds 40 units more than 10 times during a 10-minute window. Which of the following would you recommend? (Choose two.)

A.    Create a search query to identify when the requestCharge_s exceeds 40.
B.    Create a search query to identify when the requestCharge_s exceeds 10.
C.    Create a search query to identify when the duration_s exceeds 10.
D.    Configure a period of 10 and a frequency of 10.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/logging

NEW QUESTION 142
Our team needs to deploy a Virtual machine that will host a SQL Server. The Virtual machine will have 2 data disks, one for the log file and the other for the data files. You need to recommend a caching policy for each disk. Which of the following would you recommend for the data disk containing the logs?

A.    None
B.    ReadOnly
C.    WriteOnly
D.    ReadWrite

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sql/virtual-machines-windows-sql-performance

NEW QUESTION 143
A company has setup an Azure subscription and an Azure tenant. You need to provide the development team to be able to start and stop Virtual Machines. The access needs to be granted on specific occasions only. You need to ensure the permission gets assigned and use the principle of least privilege. You also need to minimize costs. Which of the following security feature would you use for the requirement?

A.    Conditional Access policy
B.    Azure Policies
C.    Just in time VM access
D.    Privileged Identity Management

Answer: D
Explanation:
With Privileged Identity Management, you can implement just in time privileges for Azure resources.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 144
A company has deployed several applications across Windows and Linux Virtual machines in Azure. Log Analytics are being used to send the required data for alerting purposes for the Virtual Machines. You need to recommend which tables need to be queried for security related queries. Which of the following would you query for events from Windows Event Logs?

A.    Azure Activity
B.    Azure Diagnostics
C.    Event
D.    Syslog

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-windows-events

NEW QUESTION 145
Hotspot
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 146
Drag and Drop
Match the Azure Cloud Services benefit to the correct description. (To answer, drag the appropriate benefit from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each benefit may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/mt422582.aspx
https://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/cloud-disaster-recovery-cloud-DR
http://www.siasmsp.com/the-benefit-of-scalability-in-cloud-computing-2/
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/overview/what-is-cloud-computing/

NEW QUESTION 147
Hotspot
You have an Azure environment that contains 10 web apps. To which URL should you connect to manage all the Azure resources? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 148
Drag and Drop
Match the Azure service to the correct description. (To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/sql-database/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overview-what-is
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-introduction

NEW QUESTION 149
A company is planning on deploying an Azure Web App to 2 regions. One of the key requirements is to ensure that the web app is always running if an Azure region fails. You need to ensure deployment costs are minimized. Which of the following service would you include in the deployment of the solution?

A.    Azure Functions
B.    Azure Traffic Manager
C.    Azure Application Gateway
D.    Azure Load Balancer

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-overview

NEW QUESTION 150
A company has deployed several applications across Windows and Linux Virtual machines in Azure. Log Analytics are being used to send the required data for alerting purposes for the Virtual Machines. You need to recommend which tables need to be queried for security related queries. Which of the following would you query for events from Linux system logging?

A.    Azure Activity
B.    Azure Diagnostics
C.    Event
D.    Syslog

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-syslog

NEW QUESTION 151
A company is planning on deploying a stateless based application based on microservices using the Azure Service Fabric service. You need to design the infrastructure that would be required in the Azure Service Fabric service. Which of the following should you consider? (Choose two.)

A.    The number of node types in the cluster.
B.    The properties for each node type.
C.    The network connectivity.
D.    The service tier.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-fabric/service-fabric-cluster-capacity

NEW QUESTION 152
……


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NEW QUESTION 121
Your company uses Microsoft System Center ?Service Manager on its on-premises network. You plan to deploy several services to Azure. You need to recommend a solution to push Azure service health to Service Manager. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure Notification Hubs
B.    Azure Event Hubs
C.    IT Service Management Connector (ITSM)
D.    Application Insights Connector

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/itsmc-overview

NEW QUESTION 122
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains several administrative user accounts. You need to recommend a solution to identify which administrative user accounts have NOT signed in during the previous 30 days. Which service should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure AD Identity Protection
B.    Azure Activity Log
C.    Azure Advisor
D.    Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 123
Your company plans to publish APIs for its services by using Azure API Management. You discover that service responses include the AspNet-Version header. You need to recommend a solution to remove AspNet-Version from the response of the published APIs. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    a new product
B.    a modification to the URL scheme
C.    a new policy
D.    a new revision

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/transform-api

NEW QUESTION 124
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure WebJob that runs the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 125
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create a Logic App to run the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126
You manage on-premises networks and Azure virtual networks. You need a secure private connection between the on-premises networks and the Azure virtual networks. The connection must offer a redundant pair of cross connections to provide high availability. What should you recommend?

A.    ExpressRoute
B.    Azure Load Balancer
C.    virtual network peering
D.    VPN Gateway

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 127
You use a virtual network to extend an on-premises IT environment into the cloud. The virtual network has two virtual machines (VMs) that store sensitive data. The data must only be available using internal communication channels. Internet access to those VMs is not permitted. You need to ensure that the VMs cannot access the Internet. Which two options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Network Interface (NIC)
B.    Source Network Address Translation (SNAT)
C.    Azure ExpressRoute
D.    Network Security Groups (NSG)

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 128
Your company plans to migrate its on-premises data to Azure. You need to recommend which Azure services can be used to store the data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Encrypt all data while at rest.
– Encrypt data only by using a key generated by the company.
Which two possible services can you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Table storage
B.    Azure Backup
C.    Azure Blob storage
D.    Azure Queue storage
E.    Azure Files

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-service-encryption-customer-managed-keys

NEW QUESTION 129
You architect a solution that calculates 3D geometry from height-map data. You have the following requirements:
– Perform calculations in Azure.
– Each node must communicate data to every other node.
– Maximize the number of nodes to calculate multiple scenes as fast as possible.
– Require the least amount of effort to implement.
You need to recommend a solution. Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a render farm that uses Azure Batch.
B.    Enable parallel file systems on Azure.
C.    Enable parallel task execution on compute nodes.
D.    Create a render farm that uses virtual machine (VM) scale sets.
E.    Create a render farm that uses virtual machines (VMs).

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 130
Hotspot
You have an Azure App Service Web App that includes Azure Blob storage and an Azure SQL Database instance. The application is instrumented by using the Application Insights SDK. You need to design a monitoring solution for the web app. Which Azure monitoring services should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate Azure monitoring services in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 131
Drag and Drop
An organization has an on-premises server that runs Windows Server 2003. The server hosts an IIS- based stateless web application that uses forms authentication. The application consists of classic Active Server Pages (ASP) pages and third-party components (DLLs) that are registered in the Windows registry. The deployment process for the web application is manual and is prone to errors. The deployment process makes it difficult to roll out updates, scale out, and recover after failures. You need to design a modernization approach for the web application that meets the following requirements:
– Improve the deployment process.
– Ensure that the application can run in the cloud.
– Minimize changes to application code.
– Minimize administrative effort required to implement the modernization solution.
What should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct approaches. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 132
A company deploys Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect to synchronize identity information from their on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts , credential hashes for authentication (password sync), and group membership. The company plans to deploy several Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs) to support their applications. The VMs have the following requirements:
– Support domain join, LDAP read, LDAP bind, NTLM and Kerberos authentication, and Group Policy.
– Allow users to sign in to the domain using their corporate credentials and connect remotely to the VM by using Remote Desktop.
You need to support the VM deployment. Which service should you use?

A.    Azure AD Domain Services
B.    Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
C.    Azure AD Managed Service Identity
D.    Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure AD Domain Services provides managed domain services such as domain join, group policy, LDAP, Kerberos/NTLM authentication that are fully compatible with Windows Server Active Directory.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview

NEW QUESTION 133
A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run old versions of Windows and Linux. The company plans to place applications in containers. You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The solution must support storage orchestration.
Solution: You create an Azure virtual network, public IP address, and load balancer. Then add virtual machines (VMs) to the solution and deploy individual containers on them.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead you should deploy each application to an Azure Container instance.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/standard/modernize-with-azure-and-containers/modernize-existing-apps-to-cloud-optimized/deploy-existing-net-apps-as-windows-containers

NEW QUESTION 134
A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run old versions of Windows and Linux. The company plans to place applications in containers. You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The solution must support storage orchestration.
Solution: You deploy each application to an Azure Container instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Docker Containers are the global standard and are natively supported in Azure, offering enterprises an interesting and flexible way to migrate legacy apps for both future proofing and cost benefits. Containers are modular and portable. Docker containers are supported on any server operating system (Linux and Windows), in any major public cloud (Microsoft Azure, Amazon AWS, Google, IBM), and in on-premises and private or hybrid cloud environments.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/standard/modernize-with-azure-and-containers/modernize-existing-apps-to-cloud-optimized/deploy-existing-net-apps-as-windows-containers

NEW QUESTION 135
Drag and Drop
You manage a solution in Azure. The solution is performing poorly. You need to recommend tools to determine causes for the performance issues. What should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate monitoring solutions to the correct scenarios. Each monitoring solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Metrics in Azure Monitor are stored in a time-series database which is optimized for analyzing time-stamped data. This makes metrics particularly suited for alerting and fast detection of issues.
Box 2: Log data collected by Azure Monitor is stored in a Log Analytics workspace, which is based on Azure Data Explorer. Logs in Azure Monitor are especially useful for performing complex analysis across data from a variety of sources.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-platform
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-platform-logs

NEW QUESTION 136
Hotspot
You manage a network that includes an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services domain and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Employees are requires to use different accounts when using on-premises or cloud resources. You must recommend a solution that lets employees sign in to all company resources by using a single account. The solution must implement an identity provider. You need provide guidance on the different identity providers. How should you describe each identity provider? (To answer, select the appropriate description from each list in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box1: User management occurs on-premises. Azure AD authenticates employees by using on-premises passwords.
Box 2: User management occurs on-premises. The on-promises domain controller authenticates employee credentials. You can federate your on-premises environment with Azure AD and use this federation for authentication and authorization. This sign-in method ensures that all user authentication occurs on-premises.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-fed

NEW QUESTION 137
You manage a solution in Azure. You must collect usage data including MAC addresses from all devices on the network. You need to recommend a monitoring solution. What should you recommend?

A.    Activity Log Analytics
B.    Azure Network Security Group Analytics
C.    Network Performance Monitor
D.    Azure Application Gateway Analytics
E.    Azure Wire Data

Answer: B
Explanation:
A network security group (NSG) includes rules that allow or deny traffic to a virtual network subnet, network interface, or both. When you enable diagnostic logging for an NSG, you can log the following categories of information:
– Event: Entries are logged for which NSG rules are applied to VMs, based on MAC address. The status for these rules is collected every 60 seconds.
– Rule counter: Contains entries for how many times each NSG rule is applied to deny or allow traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-nsg-manage-log

NEW QUESTION 138
A partner manages on-premises and Azure environments. The partner deploys an on-premises solution that needs to use Azure services. The partner deploys a virtual appliance. All network traffic that is directed to a specific subnet must flow through the virtual appliance. You need to recommend solutions to manage network traffic. Which two options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure Azure Traffic Manager
B.    Implement an Azure virtual network
C.    Configure a routing table with forced tunneling
D.    Implement Azure ExpressRoute

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Forced tunneling lets you redirect or “force” all Internet-bound traffic back to your on-premises location via a Site-to-Site VPN tunnel for inspection and auditing. This is a critical security requirement for most enterprise IT policies. Without forced tunneling, Internet-bound traffic from your VMs in Azure always traverses from Azure network infrastructure directly out to the Internet, without the option to allow you to inspect or audit the traffic. Forced tunneling in Azure is configured via virtual network user-defined routes.
D: ExpressRoute lets you extend your on-premises networks into the Microsoft cloud over a private connection facilitated by a connectivity provider. With ExpressRoute, you can establish connections to Microsoft cloud services, such as Microsoft Azure, Office 365, and Dynamics 365. Connectivity can be from an any-to-any (IP VPN) network, a point-to-point Ethernet network, or a virtual cross-connection through a connectivity provider at a co- location facility. ExpressRoute connections do not go over the public Internet. This allows ExpressRoute connections to offer more reliability, faster speeds, lower latencies, and higher security than typical connections over the Internet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-forced-tunneling-rm
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-introduction

NEW QUESTION 139
……


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NEW QUESTION 466
A CUCM end user with Extension Mobility is associated with an 8851 phone and 8851 device profile. However, the user logs into a Cisco 8941, which device profile will be used?

A.    8941 default device profile
B.    8851 default device profile
C.    the 8851 device profile
D.    universal device profile

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 467
Which Cisco Unified Mobility setting enables or disables an incoming call to ring the desk phone and the remote destination at the same time?

A.    Mobility Profile
B.    Answer Too Soon timer
C.    Remote Destination Profile
D.    Enable Mobile Connect

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 468
Which method is recommended to implement high availability when configuring the Extension Mobility phone service?

A.    unique phone service for each Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
B.    automatically handled by Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C.    server load balancer virtual IP
D.    DNS A record with multiple IPs listed

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 469
Which is best practice on where to mark the packet when a Cisco IP phone is connected to Cisco Switch?

A.    access layer switch
B.    branch router
C.    Cisco IP phone
D.    core layer switch

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 470
Where does an engineer configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager Directory URI?

A.    directory number
B.    Cisco IPC
C.    CSF-Jabber
D.    physical phone

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 471
QoS should be configured on Cisco VCS because it processes the media and the call signaling. The endpoints that register to Cisco VCS (such as the Cisco TelePresence System EX Series, C Series, and Cisco IP Video Phone E20) should be configured so that media uses which Layer 3 DSCP packet value?

A.    AF41 (34)
B.    EF (46)
C.    CS4 (32)
D.    CS3 (24)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 472
A Cisco IP phone is registered to a SRST gateway and the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server is back online. What is the default duration the phone monitors its connection to the Cisco Unified CM server, before unregistering with the SRST gateway and registering with the Cisco Unified CM server?

A.    0
B.    30
C.    120
D.    60

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 473
Imagine you configured several zones for device registration on Cisco VCS. To which superior zone are all of your configured zones associated?

A.    traversal subzone
B.    root zone
C.    default subzone
D.    default zone
E.    default registration zone

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 474
Which two statements about Zones on Cisco Expressways are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can register endpoints to default zone.
B.    Bandwidth for calls between endpoints in the same zone cannot be restricted.
C.    Endpoints are associated to default subzone or any customized subzone depending on the IP address of the endpoint.
D.    A neighbor zone connects Cisco Expressway Core to other systems via SIP or H.323.
E.    A neighbor zone connects Cisco Expressway Core to Cisco Expressway for NAT, PAT, and firewall traversal.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 475
An engineer must verify that Expressway connects to Cisco Unified Communication Manager using TLS. Which menu navigation sequence accomplishes this task?

A.    Configuration > Domains
B.    Configuration > Dial plan > Transforms
C.    Configuration > Dial plan > Search rules
D.    Configuration > Zones > Zones

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 476
Which default DSCP marking value do telepresence endpoints use for video?

A.    CS4
B.    CS2
C.    AF41
D.    EF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 477
The phone model series for the physical device and user profile is matching (i.e.797x) in Extension Mobility. What Extension Mobility equivalency feature enables differences?

A.    Size Safe
B.    Call Display Restriction Features
C.    CUCM Assistant Features
D.    Feature Safe

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 478
Which two configuration items must you verify when a Cisco Unified IP Phone fails to register to the secondary Call Manager server? (Choose two.)

A.    Date/Time Group Configuration
B.    Cisco Unified CM Group Configuration
C.    Application Server Configuration
D.    Device Pool Configuration
E.    SRST Reference Configuration

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 479
Which command does an engineer execute to find out the Cisco Unified Communications Manager database replication status in CLI?

A.    utils dbreplication clusterrest
B.    utils dbreplication quickaudit
C.    utils dbreplication rebuild
D.    utils dbreplication runtimestate

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
Which two devices or applications support call preservation? (Choose two.)

A.    JTAPI applications
B.    CTI applications
C.    a software conference bridge
D.    an annunciator
E.    SIP trunks

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 481
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication. On one cluster, she would like to prevent the local cluster from routing calls to a specific pattern learned via ILS. What should be configured within the local CUCM cluster to accomplish this?

A.    Create a block transformation pattern.
B.    Create a block route pattern.
C.    Create a block translation pattern.
D.    Create a block learned pattern.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 482
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You are Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. Sales representatives must enter estimated revenue only as an exception. You need to ensure that estimated revenue for opportunities is automatically calculated. What should you do?

A.    In the System Settings sales tab, change the default revenue type to System Calculated.
B.    In custom controls, change the default revenue setting to System Calculated.
C.    In Personalization settings for each user, change the default revenue type to System Calculated.
D.    In Opportunities, change the default value of the revenue type to System Calculated.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You manage a default Dynamics 365 for Sales environment. You are configuring a sales dashboard. You need to create an interactive dashboard. Which three entities can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Queue Item
B.    Opportunity
C.    Knowledge Article
D.    Case
E.    Invoice

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/configure-interactive-dashboards

NEW QUESTION 3
A company plans to close early on the last day of the month for an employee celebration. You need to configure Dynamics 365 to prevent scheduling of sales support resources for that day. Which feature should you use?

A.    Events
B.    Business closure
C.    Fiscal calendar
D.    Time off request

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-when-business-closed-csh

NEW QUESTION 4
An organization uses sales dashboards in Dynamics 365. You need to configure a single a dashboard that includes the following data:
– both complex key performance indicators that are derived from external data and custom visuals
– real-time data on sales performance that is based on Dynamics 365 data
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Add the external data as virtual entities in Dynamics 365 and use it for the dashboard visualizations.
B.    Create all visuals in a Microsoft Power BI dashboard. Embed the dashboard in Dynamics 365.
C.    Create tiles and a dashboard in Microsoft Power BI.
D.    Create charts with required data in Dynamics 365.
E.    Combine Microsoft Power BI and standard charts on a standard dashboard in Dynamics 365.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 5
An organization uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to create a quote template in Microsoft Word for use in the organization. What should you do?

A.    Create a flow
B.    Enable dynamic content in Microsoft Word
C.    Enable the Developer tab in Microsoft Word
D.    Enable VBA in Microsoft Word

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/using-word-templates-dynamics-365

NEW QUESTION 6
You manage Dynamics 365 environments for client organizations. A client suspects they are losing business. The client must be able to capture reasons each time an opportunity is lost. You need to configure Dynamics 365 to ensure that you can capture the required information. Which field should you configure?

A.    Opportunity status reason
B.    Opportunity close status
C.    Opportunity status
D.    Opportunity close status reason

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
An order uses quote and order functionality in Dynamics 365 for Sales. Multiple quotes may be provided to customers at one time. Quotes are revised often. You need to create a process that meets the following requirements:
– create an order from a quote
– close the associated opportunity as won
– update the actual values to reflect values from the quote
Which two opportunities can you close as won? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    The opportunity has other quotes in the won status.
B.    The opportunity has other quotes in the draft status.
C.    The opportunity has other quotes in the active status.
D.    The opportunity has other quotes in the revised status reason.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 8
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to change the description field on the quote. Which state allows you to make the change?

A.    Closed
B.    Active
C.    Draft
D.    Won

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You use Dynamics 365 for Sales system customizer. You need to create product kits and bundles. What should you create? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/create-product-bundles-sell-multiple-items-together

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
The product development team for a toy company creates a new remote-control toy. You need to create the necessary records and record relationships to sell the product. Which five records and/or components should you configure in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate records and/or components from the list of records and components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. The sales team is having difficulty locating related products. You need to make it easier for the sales team to find groups of products that are similar. What should you use?

A.    Related products
B.    Product bundles
C.    Product families
D.    Product unit groups

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/define-related-products-increase-chances-sales

NEW QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. You are setting up a product catalog. You need to configure the base unit group. Which quantity or measurement should you configure?

A.    the highest needed to sell the product or service
B.    the least frequently used to sell the service
C.    the most frequently used to sell the service
D.    the lowest needed to sell the product or service

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-professional/create-unit-group-add-units

NEW QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 system customizer. You create a price list with related products. Sales team members use the list to generate opportunities, quotes, and orders. You need to create a product family. What should you do?

A.    Add a new product family to an existing product family.
B.    Delete the existing price list and create a new one.
C.    Create a unit group for use with the product family.
D.    Add a parent product family to an existing product family.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/create-product-family

NEW QUESTION 14
……


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NEW QUESTION 444
After the departure of a developer under unpleasant circumstances, the company is concerned about the security of the software to which the developer has access. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure security of the code following the incident?

A.    Hire an external red tem to conduct black box testing.
B.    Conduct a peer review and cross reference the SRTM.
C.    Perform white-box testing on all impacted finished products.
D.    Perform regression testing and search for suspicious code.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 445
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is developing a new BIA for the organization. The CISO wants to gather requirements to determine the appropriate RTO and RPO for the organization’s ERP. Which of the following should the CISO interview as MOST qualified to provide RTO/RPO metrics?

A.    Data custodian
B.    Data owner
C.    Security analyst
D.    Business unit director
E.    Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 446
A security engineer is employed by a hospital that was recently purchased by a corporation. Throughout the acquisition process, all data on the virtualized file servers must be shared by departments within both organizations. The security engineer considers data ownership to determine ____.

A.    the amount of data to be moved
B.    the frequency of data backups
C.    which users will have access to which data
D.    when the file server will be decommissioned

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 447
An information security manager conducted a gap analysis, which revealed a 75% implementation of security controls for high-risk vulnerabilities, 90% for medium vulnerabilities, and 10% for low-risk vulnerabilities. To create a road map to close the identified gaps, the assurance team reviewed the likelihood of exploitation of each vulnerability and the business impact of each associated control. To determine which controls to implement, which of the following is the MOST important to consider?

A.    KPI
B.    KRI
C.    GRC
D.    BIA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 448
A development team is testing an in-house-developed application for bugs. During the test, the application crashes several times due to null pointer exceptions. Which of the following tools, if integrated into an IDE during coding, would identify these bugs routinely?

A.    Issue tracker
B.    Static code analyzer
C.    Source code repository
D.    Fuzzing utility

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 449
A legacy web application, which is being used by a hospital, cannot be upgraded for 12 months. A new vulnerability is found in the legacy application, and the networking team is tasked with mitigation. Middleware for mitigation will cost $100,000 per year. Which of the following must be calculated to determine ROI? (Choose two.)

A.    ALE
B.    RTO
C.    MTBF
D.    ARO
E.    RPO

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 450
A project manager is working with a software development group to collect and evaluate user stories related to the organization’s internally designed CRM tool. After defining requirements, the project manager would like to validate the developer’s interpretation and understanding of the user’s request. Which of the following would BEST support this objective?

A.    Peer review
B.    Design review
C.    Scrum
D.    User acceptance testing
E.    Unit testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 451
A network printer needs Internet access to function. Corporate policy states all devices allowed on the network must be authenticated. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to allow the printer on the network without violating policy?

A.    Request an exception to the corporate policy from the risk management committee.
B.    Require anyone trying to use the printer to enter their username and password.
C.    Have a help desk employee sign in to the printer every morning.
D.    Issue a certificate to the printer and use certificate-based authentication.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 452
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of an established security department, identifies a customer who has been using a fraudulent credit card. The CISO calls the local authorities, and when they arrive on- site, the authorities ask a security engineer to create a point-in-time copy of the running database in their presence. This is an example of ____.

A.    creating a forensic image
B.    deploying fraud monitoring
C.    following a chain of custody
D.    analyzing the order of volatility

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 453
A technician is configuring security options on the mobile device manager for users who often utilize public Internet connections while travelling. After ensuring that full disk encryption is enabled, which of the following security measures should the technician take? (Choose two.)

A.    Require all mobile device backups to be encrypted.
B.    Ensure all mobile devices back up using USB OTG.
C.    Issue a remote wipe of corporate and personal partitions.
D.    Restrict devices from making long-distance calls during business hours.
E.    Implement an always-on VPN.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 454
A systems administrator receives an advisory email that a recently discovered exploit is being used in another country and the financial institutions have ceased operations while they find a way to respond to the attack. Which of the following BEST describes where the administrator should look to find information on the attack to determine if a response must be prepared for the systems? (Choose two.)

A.    Bug bounty websites
B.    Hacker forums
C.    Antivirus vendor websites
D.    Trade industry association websites
E.    CVE database
F.    Company’s legal department

Answer: EF

NEW QUESTION 455
A security assessor is working with an organization to review the policies and procedures associated with managing the organization’s virtual infrastructure. During a review of the virtual environment, the assessor determines the organization is using servers to provide more than one primary function, which violates a regulatory requirement. The assessor reviews hardening guides and determines policy allows for this configuration. It would be MOST appropriate for the assessor to advise the organization to ____.

A.    segment dual-purpose systems on a hardened network segment with no external access
B.    assess the risks associated with accepting non-compliance with regulatory requirements
C.    update system implementation procedures to comply with regulations
D.    review regulatory requirements and implement new policies on any newly provisioned servers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 456
While conducting a BIA for a proposed acquisition, the IT integration team found that both companies outsource CRM services to competing and incompatible third-party cloud services. The decision has been made to bring the CRM service in-house, and the IT team has chosen a future solution. With which of the following should the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) be MOST concerned? (Choose two.)

A.    Data remnants
B.    Sovereignty
C.    Compatible services
D.    Storage encryption
E.    Data migration
F.    Chain of custody

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 457
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) suspects that a database administrator has been tampering with financial data to the administrator’s advantage. Which of the following would allow a third-party consultant to conduct an on-site review of the administrator’s activity?

A.    Separation of duties
B.    Job rotation
C.    Continuous monitoring
D.    Mandatory vacation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 458
Following the successful response to a data-leakage incident, the incident team lead facilitates an exercise that focuses on continuous improvement of the organization’s incident response capabilities. Which of the following activities has the incident team lead executed?

A.    Lessons learned review
B.    Root cause analysis
C.    Incident audit
D.    Corrective action exercise

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 459
Following a recent network intrusion, a company wants to determine the current security awareness of all of its employees. Which of the following is the BEST way to test awareness?

A.    Conduct a series of security training events with comprehensive tests at the end.
B.    Hire an external company to provide an independent audit of the network security posture.
C.    Review the social media of all employees to see how much proprietary information is shared.
D.    Send an email from a corporate account, requesting users to log onto a website with their enterprise account.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 460
A company’s security policy states any remote connections must be validated using two forms of network- based authentication. It also states local administrative accounts should not be used for any remote access. PKI currently is not configured within the network. RSA tokens have been provided to all employees, as well as a mobile application that can be used for 2FA authentication. A new NGFW has been installed within the network to provide security for external connections, and the company has decided to use it for VPN connections as well. Which of the following should be configured? (Choose two.)

A.    Certificate-based authentication
B.    TACACS+
C.    802.1X
D.    RADIUS
E.    LDAP
F.    Local user database

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 461
The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict PII security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used?

A.    Avoid
B.    Mitigate
C.    Transfer
D.    Accept

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 462
A security administrator is updating a company’s SCADA authentication system with a new application. To ensure interoperability between the legacy system and the new application, which of the following stakeholders should be involved in the configuration process before deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    Network engineer
B.    Service desk personnel
C.    Human resources administrator
D.    Incident response coordinator
E.    Facilities manager
F.    Compliance manager

Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 463
A company has decided to replace all the T-1 uplinks at each regional office and move away from using the existing MPLS network. All regional sites will use high-speed connections and VPNs to connect back to the main campus. Which of the following devices would MOST likely be added at each location?

A.    SIEM
B.    IDS/IPS
C.    Proxy server
D.    Firewall
E.    Router

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 464
First responders, who are part of a core incident response team, have been working to contain an outbreak of ransomware that also led to data loss in a rush to isolate the three hosts that were calling out to the NAS to encrypt whole directories, the hosts were shut down immediately without investigation and then isolated. Which of the following were missed? (Choose two.)

A.    CPU, process state tables, and main memory dumps.
B.    Essential information needed to perform data restoration to a known clean state.
C.    Temporary file system and swap space.
D.    Indicators of compromise to determine ransomware encryption.
E.    Chain of custody information needed for investigation.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 465
A regional business is expecting a severe winter storm next week. The IT staff has been reviewing corporate policies on how to handle various situations and found some are missing or incomplete. After reporting this gap in documentation to the information security manager, a document is immediately drafted to move various personnel to other locations to avoid downtime in operations. This is an example of ____.

A.    a disaster recovery plan
B.    an incident response plan
C.    a business continuity plan
D.    a risk avoidance plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 466
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
To ensure that your customer’s cluster is robust and operational, you need to be familiar with configuration best practices. Which three practice rules should you always follow? (Choose three.)

A.    Keep all nodes in the cluster on the same version of ONTAP.
B.    Use LIFs with defined failover policies.
C.    Remove failed disk drives once a year to maintain minimum interruption in your controller stability.
D.    All power supply units should be plugged into the same power grid.
E.    Do not use the root aggregate for storing data.

Answer: ABE

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You just finished an AFF A300 installation with two DS224C disk shelves. What are two ways to cable these disk shelves? (Choose two.)

A.    Use alternative control path.
B.    Use single-path HA.
C.    Use quad-path HA.
D.    Use multipath HA.

Answer: AD

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A customer has a standard request for information regarding the installation, configuration, usage, and maintenance of his NetApp equipment. What is the appropriate priority level to use when he opens a case?

A.    P2
B.    P1
C.    P4
D.    P3

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
You have created an aggregate with one RAID group on your ONTAP 9 cluster. Two disks have already failed and have not finished reconstructing. What would protect you from a third disk failure while you are still reconstructing the two failed disks?

A.    RAID-0
B.    RAID-4
C.    RAID-TEC
D.    RAID-DP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
What are two ways to obtain customer licenses for a new ONTAP system? (Choose two.)

A.    Access the NetApp Support site.
B.    Open a support ticket.
C.    Access the Field Portal site.
D.    Access NetApp Knowledge Base.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 6
What is the minimum number of iSCSI LIFs per node in ONTAP 9.5?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    1
D.    4

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
A customer ordered two new DS224C shelves. The customer wants you to add these shelves to an existing stack which consists of two DS2246 shelves. Which statement is true in this scenario?

A.    You need to order additional cables to expand the existing stack.
B.    Mixing DS224C and DS2246 shelves in the same node are not supported.
C.    You cannot mix DS224C and DS2246 shelves in the same stack.
D.    DS224C shelves are supports with only new HBAs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
You are asked to install a new ONTAP cluster at a customer site. In this scenario, which ONTAP versions would you normally install? (Choose two.)

A.    the latest RC1 with the included patch level
B.    the latest GA with the included patch level
C.    the release specified by the customer
D.    the latest D release listed for the controller type

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 9
You install and apply the NetApp RSCF on cluster interconnect switches. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    The RCF file enables jumbo frames for all cluster traffic.
B.    The RCF file enables IPv6 for use by the cluster traffic.
C.    The RCF file enables flow control and is set to receive.
D.    The RCF file enables CDP to allow connected devices to discover the switch.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
You want to grow your current ONTAP cluster. You have a Cisco Nexus 5596UP that is currently using all of its on-board ports. Which statement is correct in this situation?

A.    Contact NetApp Support to order new switches.
B.    Add expansion modules to the Cisco switches.
C.    Pull the redundant cables from each node to obtain more free ports on the switch.
D.    Add new SFP modules to the empty on board ports on the Cisco switches.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
A new AFF8200 has a four-port UTA2 adapter installed in slot 2. Using the ucadmin command, you see that these ports are configured for FC. Which port names are correct in this scenario?

A.    e0a/0a, e0b/0b, e0c/0c, e0d/od
B.    e2a/2a, e2b/2b, e2c/2c, e2d/2d
C.    e2a, e2b, e2c, e2d
D.    2a, 2b, 2c, 2d

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
You have just installed a new FAS2620 on a cluster site. You are using the USB cable for the intial configuration. In this scenario, what is the default speed for the serial connection?

A.    9600 bps
B.    15200 bps
C.    576000 bps
D.    115200 bps

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
You just finish the installation of a single-node cluster. You want to make sure that the cluster backups are saved to a different location. What is required to accomplish this task?

A.    Set up AutoSupport.
B.    Enable copy offloading.
C.    Set up SVM disaster recovery.
D.    Configure a system configuration backup.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about the ONTAP 9.5 networking features? (Choose two.)

A.    The broadcast domain is a layer 2 object.
B.    The broadcast domain is a layer 3 object.
C.    The MTU will be the same across all ports in a broadcast domain.
D.    The MTU will change based on each port configuration in a broadcast domain.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 15
What is a node?

A.    A node refers to all physical devices bound together In the cluster.
B.    A node is the logical device that shares data.
C.    A node is a logical network port.
D.    A node is a controller that is part of the cluster.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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