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[26/Mar/2019 Updated] Free PassLeader 184q CWAP-403 VCE Braindump with Free PDF Study Guide

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NEW QUESTION 161
What is the function of 802.11 Management frames?

A.    Manage the BSS.
B.    Manage the flow of data.
C.    Communicate configuration changes between WLAN controller and APs.
D.    Prioritize network administration traffic.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 162
Which one of the statements regarding the Frame Control field in an 802.11 MAC header is true?

A.    Only Control frames have a Frame Control field.
B.    The Frame Control field contains three sub-fields and eight one-bit flags.
C.    The Frame Control field is used to communicate the duration value.
D.    The Frame Control field is always set to 0.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This field is simply used to indicate which protocol version of 802.11 is being used by the frame. This is always set to “0”.
https://mrncciew.com/2014/09/27/cwap-mac-header-frame-control/

NEW QUESTION 163
What should the To DS and From DS flags be to set to in an Association Response frame?

A.    To DS = 0, From DS = 0.
B.    To DS = 0, From DS = 1.
C.    To DS = 1, From DS = 0.
D.    To DS = 1, From DS = 1.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://dalewifisec.wordpress.com/2014/05/17/the-to-ds-and-from-ds-fields/

NEW QUESTION 164
An RST frame should be acknowledged by which frame?

A.    Ack
B.    CTS
C.    Block-Ack
D.    RTS-Ack

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 165
Which one of the following is not an 802.11 Management frame?

A.    Action
B.    Authentication
C.    PS-Poll
D.    Beacon

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 166
What is the difference between a Data frame and a QoS-Data frame?

A.    QoS Data frames include a QoS control field.
B.    QoS Data frames include a QoS information element.
C.    QoS Data frames include a DSCP control field.
D.    QoS Data frames include an 802.1Q VLAN tag.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 167
What is an AIFS?

A.    A form of aggregation performed at the PLCP sub-layer.
B.    The shortest period of time a STA can sleep.
C.    A medium access method introduced by 802.11n, but never implemented.
D.    A variable Interframe Space introduced by 802.11e to help prioritize medium access for different Access Categories.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 168
Which one of the following statements describes the function of WMM Admission Control?

A.    APs guarantee Voice and Video access categories priority over the WLAN medium.
B.    APs control access to the wireless medium by polling STAs for data packets.
C.    APs regulate the available bandwidth in an attempt to provide a guarantee of the amount of time that a STA has available to access the channel.
D.    Provides a new 802.11 Authentication method for Voice devices.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 169
The PLCP sublayer provides framing by adding a header to create what type of data unit?

A.    MSDU
B.    MPDU
C.    PSDU
D.    PPDU

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 170
What Interframe space would be expected between a CTS and a Data frame?

A.    SIFS
B.    DIFS
C.    AIFS
D.    PIFS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 171
How does a VoIP Phone, using WMM Power Save, request data frames buffered at the AP?

A.    The VoIP phone transmits a PS-Poll frame.
B.    The VoIP phone transmits a trigger frame.
C.    The VoIP phone sets the More Data bit in the MAC Header to 1.
D.    The VoIP phone transmits a WMM Action frame.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 172
What is encrypted within the fourth frame of the 4-Way Handshake?

A.    PMK
B.    PTK
C.    GMK
D.    GTK

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 173
Which one of the following is not a valid reason for an AP to fail a STAs association?

A.    Requesting station has the wrong PSK.
B.    Does not support the specified authentication algorithm.
C.    AP is unable to handle additional associations.
D.    Requesting station does not support all the required data rates.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174
During a VHT Transmit Beamforming sounding exchange, the beamformee transmits a Compressed Beamforming frame to the beamformer. What is communicated within this Compressed Beamforming frame?

A.    Steering Matrix
B.    Beamforming Matrix
C.    Feedback Matrix
D.    Beamformee Matrix

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 175
You are analyzing a packet decode of a Probe Request and notice the SSID element has a length of zero. What do you conclude about transmitting STA?

A.    The WLAN adaptor is configured in promiscuous mode.
B.    The STA is operating in Ad-Hoc mode.
C.    The STA’s WLAN adaptor is disabled.
D.    The STA is discovering a list of available BSSs.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 176
What is the default 802.11 authentication method for a STA when using Pre-RSNA?

A.    Open System
B.    Shared Key
C.    4-Way Handshake
D.    PSK

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.eefocus.com/book/08-06/435201276057579.html

NEW QUESTION 177
What does the value of the Listen Interval field in an Association request frame indicate?

A.    How long a STA performing active scanning will listen for Probe Responses before changing channels.
B.    How often a STA will go off channel to look for other BSSs.
C.    How often a STA in power save mode wakes up to listen to Beacon frames.
D.    How long a STA waits for an Ack before retransmitting the frame.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://mrncciew.com/2014/10/28/802-11-mgmt-association-reqresponse/

NEW QUESTION 178
When performing protocol analysis, you notice a high number of RTS/CTS frames being transmitted on an HT network. You suspect this may be due to HT protection mechanisms. Where in the Beacon frame would you look to determine which one of the four HT protection modes the AP is operating in?

A.    HT Protection Element
B.    HT Information Element
C.    HT Operation Element
D.    Non-HT Present Element

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 179
Where, in a protocol analyzer, would you find an indication that a frame was transmitted as part of an AMPDU?

A.    The HT Operation Element.
B.    A-MPDU flag in the HT Control Field.
C.    A-MPDU flag in the Frame Control Field.
D.    The Aggregation flag in the Radio Tap Header.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 180
How many frames make up the Group Key Handshake excluding any Ack frames that may be required?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 181
……


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NEW QUESTION 319
Which statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two.)

A.    CEF should be enabled.
B.    CEF should be disabled.
C.    Packet with source 0.0.0.0 destination 255.255.255.255 will be permited.
D.    Packet with source 0.0.0.0 destination 255.255.255.255 will be denied.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 320
How can we limit the number of simultaneous access to the VTY lines?

A.    session-limit
B.    something about ACL

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 321
What command can be used to troubleshoot GRE issues?

A.    show dmvpn
B.    show ip interface brief
C.    show ip route

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 322
Routes are not advertised in the GRE tunnel. What is the problem?

A.    Implement dynamic routing in tunnel interfaces
B.    ACLs are blocking packets

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 323
A firewall has been inserted between 2 routers running GRE. Which protocol needs to be allowed through on the firewall?

A.    Create a firewall rule to allow IP protocol 47.
B.    Create a firewall rule to allow TCP/IP Port 47.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 324
How to apply an IPv6 access-list to lines?

A.    ipv6 access-group <ipv6 access-list name>
B.    ipv6 access-list <ipv6 access-list name>
C.    ipv6 access-class <ipv6 access-list name>

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 325
Which VPN technology allow unicast, multicast and private addressing? (Choose two.)

A.    GRE
B.    IPSec VPN
C.    GET VPN
D.    DMVPN

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 326
Which system architect allow GRE and IPSec perform routing separately?

A.    Server-client
B.    Peer-to-peer
C.    Headend
D.    Backend

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 327
What causes GRE tunnel interface to be in down/down state?

A.    The source interface is administrative shutdown.
B.    The destination interface is down/not reachable.
C.    Wrong source/destination addressing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 328
Which statement indicates a cause for Tunnel0’s connection failure?

A.    The tunnel source interface is in an up/down state and the tunnel destination is recursively routing as a result.
B.    The tunnel destination interface is flapping, which causes the tunnel to go up and down.
C.    The tunnel is configured with the wrong encapsulation.
D.    The tunnel destination is intermittently reachable via multiple routing protocols

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 329
Which statement is true for IPv6 access list commands?

A.    deny ipv6 any any log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 330
Refer to the exhibit:

PC was not configured to obtain default-gateway from the DHCP server. What can we do for PC to access the Internet?

A.    Configure static ARP in gateway router.
B.    Configure dynamic ARP in gateway router.
C.    Configure proxy-ARP in gateway router.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 331
Refer to the exhibit:
Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/1 …
condition 2: int g0/2 …
Router##no debug condition 1

What is the output of “show debug condition”?

A.    Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/1 …
condition 2: int g0/2 …
B.    Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/2 …
C.    Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/1 …
D.    Router#show debug condition
condition 2: int g0/2 …

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 332
……


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NEW QUESTION 370
In which management platform do you use Windows PoweShell to configure, deploy and manage systems?

A.    Cisco UCS Central.
B.    Cisco IMC.
C.    HCL tool in cisco UCS.
D.    Cisco UCS Desired state configuration resource.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 371
Which statement about how Cisco UCS Manager provides two-factor authentication is true?

A.    The AAA server generates one-time tokens for users during the login process.
B.    Cisco UCS Manager generates one-time tokens for users during the login process.
C.    The AAA server validates password and a token server validates the token.
D.    The AAA server validates the password and token.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 372
You need to add additional DNS entries to UCS Manager. Where would you configure the addition DNS server information?

A.    Admin Tab
B.    LAN Tab
C.    Service Profile Template
D.    Equipment Tab

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 373
Which two method can you use to import and update a system configuration by using Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    Truncate
B.    Merge
C.    Replace
D.    Purge
E.    Restore

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 374
Which two descriptions of user locales in a Cisco UCS domain are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A locale defines a default language and timezone in UCS Manager.
B.    A locale can contain more than one organization.
C.    A locale is same as an organization.
D.    User assigned to a locale can manage an organization hierarchically within the locale.
E.    A UCS user can be assigned to only one locale.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 375
Which two policy resolution control options are available when registering a Cisco UCS domain in UCS Manager and UCS Central? (Choose two.)

A.    Global
B.    Universal
C.    Server
D.    Local
E.    Host

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 376
Which two of the following does the Cisco integrated Management Control support for managing standalone Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)

A.    XML
B.    SoL
C.    SMASH CLP
D.    Virtual KVM
E.    SSH

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 377
Which two methods does Cisco UCS Manager use to create a fabric port channel? (Choose two.)

A.    By using the chassis connectivity policy settings for a spesific chassis after chassis discovery.
B.    By using the LAN connectivity policy settings during chassis discovery.
C.    By using the SAN policy settings during chassis discovery.
D.    By using the global chassis discovery policy settings.
E.    By using the lan connectivity policy settings for a spesific interface after chassis discovery.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101.html#concept_5D3D88341BFB43468B62B5A77876C67B

NEW QUESTION 378
An SD Card on a Cisco UCS C220 M4 Rack Server is in a degraded RAID state. To resolve the issue, which type of policy do you create in the associated service profile?

A.    A disk scrub.
B.    A FlexFlash scrub.
C.    A local disk configuration that uses RAID 1 moirrored mode.
D.    A bios settings scrub.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c-series-rack-servers/whitepaper-c11-734876.html

NEW QUESTION 379
You must generate Phyton scripts for operations performed from cisco UCS Manager. Which API must you use?

A.    convert_to-ucs_phyton
B.    get_managed_objects
C.    export_ucs_session
D.    watch_ucs_event

Answer: A
Explanation:
Use convert_to_ucs_python() to quickly script UCS tasks. Cisco UCS is an Integrated Compute Infrastructure that has supported an XML API since its introduction. UCS Manageris the service that provides the XML API endpoint along with a graphical interface and a command line.
https://learninglabs.cisco.com/modules/ucs-python-sdk-introduction/ucsm-python-sdk-101/step/1

NEW QUESTION 380
When you use a SAN boot which option do you configure?

A.    A UEFI boot target on the device that stores the operating system image.
B.    A boot target LUN on the device that stores the operating system image.
C.    An iSCSI boot profile.
D.    A CIMC secure boot policy.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 381
You want to modify a service profile that is bound to an updating template. Which description of the relationship between the service profile and the updating template is true?

A.    The service profile is updated automatically when the updating template changes.
B.    Changes to the updating template apply only the service profiles created after the template is updated.
C.    The service profile is updated after the server reboots.
D.    The updating template can be changed only before the service profile is implemented.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 382
You must use a Cisco UCS maintenance policy to create a deferred deployment that is independent of operating system actions. What must you include in the maintenance?

A.    Description
B.    Schedule
C.    BIOS policy
D.    Reboot policy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 383
On a Cisco Unified Computing System, which port type must the destination for an Ethernet traffic monitoring session be?

A.    Unified uplink port
B.    Unconfigured Ethernet port
C.    Uplink Ethernet port
D.    Ethernet port-channel uplink port

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/System-Monitoring/3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_System_Monitoring_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_GUI_System_Monitoring_Guide_3_1_chapter_01011.html#task_E918F6BF24364F10A19F2B2F95FFC6B9

NEW QUESTION 384
You make a change to a local disk policy of a service profile, and the server to a which it was attached reboots without warning. Which action prevents this issue from occuring in other service profiles?

A.    Bind the service profile to a service profile template.
B.    In the service profile template create a maintenance policy that uses the user-ack option.
C.    In the local disk policy select the protect configuration check box.
D.    In the service profile set the soft shutdown timer to Never.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 385
When running MultiHop FcOE, where are the FC frames de-encapsulated from Ethernet?

A.    at the first switch
B.    at each FCoE hop
C.    at the target device
D.    at the first native FC switch

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/ieee-802-1-data-center-bridging/white_paper_FCIAFCoE.pdf

NEW QUESTION 386
You plan to register a Cisco UCS domain to a Cisco UCS Central System. UCS central will determine the policy configuration. Which policy reolution mode must you use when you register the Cisco UCS domain?

A.    Private
B.    Global
C.    Central
D.    Local

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 387
Drag and Drop
You are integrating the data center infrastructure into Cisco UCS Director. You must configure each infrastructure component by using the correct account type. Drag and Drop account types from the left onto the correct infrastructure components on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 388
Which solution enables Cisco devices to be monitored with automated support capabilities?

A.    Connected service assurances
B.    Cisco Intersight
C.    Cisco Intelligent Monitoring Agent
D.    Two-Tier smart agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 389
Which statement is true regarding backup operations in Cisco UCS Manager?

A.    A user can perform incremental backups of a system configuration.
B.    Passwords and other sensitive information are encrypted in full state backups.
C.    Scheduled backups are not available.
D.    Each backup destination can have multiple backup operations.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 390
Which option must you use to regenaret the default keyring for Cisco UCS Manager?

A.    OpenSSL Server
B.    Certificate Authority
C.    UCS Manager GUI
D.    UCS Manager CLI

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 391
You are configuring Cisco UCS connectivity. Which mode uses the LOM port to carry management traffic only?

A.    Dual-wire management
B.    Direct connect
C.    Single connect
D.    In-band

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 392
……


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NEW QUESTION 194
A company has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server 2017 infrastructure. The storage area network (SAN) that supports the SQL infrastructure has reached maximum capacity. You need to recommend a solution to reduce on-premises storage use without changing the application. What should you do?

A.    Configure an Express Route connection to Microsoft Azure.
B.    Configure a Microsoft Azure Key Vault.
C.    Configure geo-replication on the SAN.
D.    Configure SQL Server Stretch Database in Microsoft Azure.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Stretch warm and cold transactional data dynamically from SQL Server to Microsoft Azure with SQL Server Stretch Database. Unlike typical cold data storage, your data is always online and available to query. Benefit from the low cost of Azure rather than scaling expensive, on-premises storage.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/stretch-database/stretch-database?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 195
A company runs Microsoft SQL Server 2017 in an on-premises environment. The databases are memory-optimized. An integrity check of a database has failed. You need to ensure that the data is healthy and passes an integrity check. What should you do?

A.    Run the CHECKTABLE Transact-SQL statement.
B.    Clear the buffer of the database.
C.    Restore from a verified backup.
D.    Run the CLEANTABLE Transact-SQL statement.

Answer: C
Explanation:
To verify the integrity of the on-disk checkpoint files, perform a backup of the MEMORY_OPTIMIZED_DATA filegroup.
Incorrect:
Not A: DBCC CHECKTABLE will fail for memory-optimized tables.
Not D: DBCC CLEANTABLE reclaims space after a variable-length column is dropped.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/in-memory-oltp/transact-sql-constructs-not-supported-by-in-memory-oltp?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 196
You have an on-premises SQL Server database named DB1 that contains a table named TB1. TB1 is stretched to Microsoft Azure. A catastrophic hardware failure occurs on the on-premises SQL server. You deploy a new on-premises server and restore all databases to the new server. You need to resume Stretch Database operations to Azure. Which statements should you execute?

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 197
You are developing customized Microsoft Azure Resource Group templates to automate the process of deploying Microsoft SQL Server in Azure to enforce consistency during future deployments. You need to deploy the customized templates to the Azure environment and to external endpoints. Which resource value should you populate?

A.    properties
B.    name
C.    resources
D.    dbType
E.    apiVersion

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 198
You have just completed a new Microsoft SQL Server installation. You need to configure a new SQL Server Agent alert to send an email to the DBA team for severity 20 errors. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose three.)

A.    Set up SQL Mail.
B.    Define an operator.
C.    Configure a credential object.
D.    Define the alert settings.
E.    Configure a proxy.
F.    Set up an External Events collector.
G.    Set up Database Mail.

Answer: BDG

NEW QUESTION 199
Drag and Drop
You plan to enable Stretch Database for a table named Table1. You need to configure Table1 to move the data to Microsoft Azure. The data must be moved at a later time. How should you complete the statement? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
When you enable Stretch for a table by specifying ON, you also have to specify MIGRATION_STATE = OUTBOUND to begin migrating data immediately, or MIGRATION_STATE = PAUSED to postpone data migration.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-table-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017&viewFallbackFrom=sql-server-

NEW QUESTION 200
Hotspot
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL Database server named server1-contoso.database.windows.net in a resource group named RG1. You need to create an elastic pool. How should you complete the script? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: New-AzureRmSqlServer. Create an Azure SQL Database logical server using the New-AzureRmSqlServer command. A logical server contains a group of databases managed as a group.
Box 2: New-AzureRmSqlElasticPool. The New-AzureRmSqlElasticPool cmdlet creates an elastic database pool for an Azure SQL Database.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-get-started-powershell
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-get-started-powershell
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.sql/new-azurermsqlelasticpool?view=azurermps-6.8.0

NEW QUESTION 201
Drag and Drop
Your company has many Microsoft SQL Server instances hosted in a data center. You also manage five Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances that are hosted on a single server in Azure. You need to minimize costs associated with Azure resources while maintaining the current performance levels of each Azure SQL Database instance. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that have varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single Azure SQL Database server and share a set number of resources at a set price.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

NEW QUESTION 202
Drag and Drop
Your company has several Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances used within an elastic pool. You need to obtain a list of databases in the pool. How should you complete the commands? (To answer, drag the appropriate segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 203
Hotspot
A company uses several Microsoft Azure elastic pools with Azure SQL Database instances. You have two pools named Pool1 and Pool2. Pool2 is near maximum capacity and cannot accommodate the database move. You need to move the database from Pool1 to Pool2. Which PowerShell cmdlets should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 204
Hotspot
A company has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment with a SQL Server named SQL01. You need to create a local sysadmin account on SQL01 NAMED Admin1. How should you complete the Transact-SQL statements? (To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL statements in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 205
Drag and Drop
You have a Microsoft SQL Server instance which hosts all of your corporate databases. A database named Sales stores information about customers and their contact information. You use the following processes for backing up the database:
– All databases are configured for full recovery model.
– Full backups are performed every morning at 2:00 AM.
– Log backups are performed every hour starting at 9:00 AM.
At 9:35 AM, a member of the sales team mistakenly updates all customer records. You need to recover the database to a stable state and recover as much data as possible without recovering the changes that the sales team member made. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 206
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NEW QUESTION 333
You have a data warehouse named DW1 that contains 20 years of data. DW1 contains a very large fact table. New data is loaded to the fact table monthly. Many reports query DW1 for the past year of data. Users frequently report that the reports are slow. You need to modify the fact table to minimize the amount of time it takes to run the reports. The solution must ensure that other reports can continue to be generated from DW1. What should you do?

A.    Move the historical data to SAS disks and move the data from the past year to SSD disks.
Run the ALTER TABLE statement.
B.    Move all the data to SSD disks. Load and archive the data by using partition switching.
C.    Move all the data to SAS disks. Load and archive the data by using partition switching.
D.    Move the historical data to SAS disks and move the data for the past year to SSD disks.
Create a distributed partitioned view.

Answer: A
Explanation:
We use ALTER TABLE to partition the table.
Incorrect:
Not D: A Distributed Partitioned View contains participating tables from multiple SQL Server instances, which can be used to distribute the data processing load across multiple servers. Another advantage for the SQL Server Partitioned Views is that the underlying tables can participate in more than one Partitioned View, which could be helpful in some implementations.

NEW QUESTION 334
You have a database named DB1. You need to track auditing data for four tables in DB1 by using change data capture. Which stored procedure should you execute first?

A.    catalog.deploy_project
B.    catalog.restore_project
C.    catalog.stop_operation
D.    sys.sp_cdc_add_job
E.    sys.sp_cdc_change_job
F.    sys.sp_cdc_disable_db

Answer: D
Explanation:
Because the cleanup and capture jobs are created by default, the sys.sp_cdc_add_job stored procedure is necessary only when a job has been explicitly dropped and must be recreated.
Note: sys.sp_cdc_add_job creates a change data capture cleanup or capture job in the current database.
A cleanup job is created using the default values when the first table in the database is enabled for change data capture. A capture job is created using the default values when the first table in the database is enabled for change data capture and no transactional publications exist for the database. When a transactional publication exists, the transactional log reader is used to drive the capture mechanism, and a separate capture job is neither required nor allowed.
Note: sys.sp_cdc_change_job.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/track-changes/track-data-changes-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 335
You have a data warehouse named DW1. All data files are located on drive E. You expect queries that pivot hundreds of millions of rows for each report. You need to modify the data files to minimize latency. What should you do?

A.    Add more data files to DW1 on drive E.
B.    Add more data files to tempdb on drive E.
C.    Remove data files from tempdb.
D.    Remove data files from DW1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The number of files depends on the number of (logical) processors on the machine. As a general rule, if the number of logical processors is less than or equal to eight, use the same number of data files as logical processors. If the number of logical processors is greater than eight, use eight data files and then if contention continues, increase the number of data files by multiples of 4 until the contention is reduced to acceptable levels or make changes to the workload/code.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/databases/tempdb-database

NEW QUESTION 336
You are the administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. The model was developed to provide consistent and validated snapshots of master data to the ETL processes by using subscription views. A new model version has been created. You need to ensure that the ETL processes retrieve the latest snapshot of master data. What should you do?

A.    Add a version flag to the new version, and create new subscription views that use this version flag.
B.    Create new subscription views for the new version.
C.    Update the subscription views to use the new version.
D.    Update the subscription views to use the last committed version.

Answer: A
Explanation:
When a version is ready for users or for a subscribing system, you can set a flag to identify the version. You can move this flag from version to version as needed. Flags help users and subscribing systems identify which version of a model to use.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/versions-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 337
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) solution. The model contains an entity named Product. The Product entity has three user-defined attributes named Category, Subcategory, and Price, respectively. You need to ensure that combinations of values stored in the Category and Subcategory attributes are unique. What should you do?

A.    Create an attribute group that consists of the Category and Subcategory attributes.
Publish a business rule for the attribute group.
B.    Publish a business rule that will be used by the Product entity.
C.    Create a derived hierarchy based on the Category and Subcategory attributes.
Use the Category attribute as the top level for the hierarchy.
D.    Set the value of the Attribute Type property for the Category and Subcategory attributes to Domain-based.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In Master Data Services, business rule actions are the consequence of business rule condition evaluations. If a condition is true, the action is initiated. The Validation action “must be unique”: The selected attribute must be unique independently or in combination with defined attributes.
Incorrect:
Not A: In Master Data Services, attribute groups help organize attributes in an entity. When an entity has lots of attributes, attribute groups improve the way an entity is displayed in the Master Data Manager web application.
Not C: A Master Data Services derived hierarchy is derived from the domain-based attribute relationships that already exist between entities in a model.
Not D: In Master Data Services, a domain-based attribute is an attribute with values that are populated by members from another entity. You can think of a domain-based attribute as a constrained list; domain- based attributes prevent users from entering attribute values that are not valid. To select an attribute value, the user must pick from a list.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/business-rule-actions-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 338
You create a Master Data Services (MDS) model that manages the master data for a Product dimension. The Product dimension has the following properties:
– All the members of the Product dimension have a product type, a product subtype, and a unique product name.
– Each product has a single product type and a single product subtype.
– The product type has a one-to-many relationship to the product subtype.
You need to ensure that the relationship between the product name, the product type, and the product subtype is maintained when products are added to or updates in the database. What should you add to the model?

A.    a subscription view
B.    a derived hierarchy
C.    a recursive hierarchy
D.    an explicit hierarchy

Answer: B
Explanation:
A Master Data Services derived hierarchy is derived from the domain-based attribute relationships that already exist between entities in a model. You can create a derived hierarchy to highlight any of the existing domain-based attribute relationships in the model.
Incorrect:
Not C: In Master Data Services, a recursive hierarchy is a derived hierarchy that includes a recursive relationship. A recursive relationship exists when an entity has a domain-based attribute based on the entity itself.
Not D: In Master Data Services, an explicit hierarchy organizes members from a single entity in any way you specify. The structure can be ragged and unlike derived hierarchies, explicit hierarchies are not based on domain-based attribute relationships.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/derived-hierarchies-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 339
You are loading data from an OLTP database to a data warehouse. The database contains a table named Sales. Sales contains details of records that have a type of refund and records that have a type of sales. The data warehouse design contains a table for sales data and a table for refund data. Which component should you use to load the data to the warehouse?

A.    the Slowly Changing Dimension transformation
B.    the Conditional Split transformation
C.    the Merge transformation
D.    the Data Conversion transformation
E.    an Execute SQL task
F.    the Aggregate transformation
G.    the Lookup transformation

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Conditional Split transformation can route data rows to different outputs depending on the content of the data. The implementation of the Conditional Split transformation is similar to a CASE decision structure in a programming language. The transformation evaluates expressions, and based on the results, directs the data row to the specified output. This transformation also provides a default output, so that if a row matches no expression it is directed to the default output.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/conditional-split-transformation

NEW QUESTION 340
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. You need to cleanse a data flow source by removing duplicate records based on approximate matches. Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?

A.    CDC Control task
B.    CDC Splitter
C.    Union All
D.    XML task
E.    Fuzzy Grouping
F.    Merge
G.    Merge Join

Answer: E
Explanation:
The Fuzzy Grouping transformation performs data cleaning tasks by identifying rows of data that are likely to be duplicates and selecting a canonical row of data to use in standardizing the data.
Incorrect:
Not C: UNION ALL. Incorporates all rows into the results. This includes duplicates. If not specified, duplicate rows are removed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/fuzzy-grouping-transformation

NEW QUESTION 341
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package design consists of two differently structured sources in a single data flow. The Sales source retrieves sales transactions from a SQL Server database, and the Product source retrieves product details from an XML file. You need to combine the two data flow sources into a single output dataset. Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?

A.    CDC Control task
B.    CDC Splitter
C.    Union All
D.    XML task
E.    Fuzzy Grouping
F.    Merge
G.    Merge Join

Answer: G
Explanation:
The Merge Join transformation provides an output that is generated by joining two sorted datasets using a FULL, LEFT, or INNER join. For example, you can use a LEFT join to join a table that includes product information with a table that lists the country/region in which a product was manufactured. The result is a table that lists all products and their country/region of origin.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/merge-join-transformation

NEW QUESTION 342
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. You need to ensure that the package records the current Log Sequence Number (LSN) in the source database before the package begins reading source tables. Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?

A.    CDC Control task
B.    CDC Splitter
C.    Union All
D.    XML task
E.    Fuzzy Grouping
F.    Merge
G.    Merge Join

Answer: A
Explanation:
The CDC Control task is used to control the life cycle of change data capture (CDC) packages. It handles CDC package synchronization with the initial load package, the management of Log Sequence Number (LSN) ranges that are processed in a run of a CDC package.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/cdc-control-task

NEW QUESTION 343
Hotspot
You are a data warehouse developer. You need to create a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) catalog on a production SQL Server instance. Which features are needed? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Yes. “Enable CLR Integration” must be selected because the catalog uses CLR stored procedures.
Box 2: Yes. Once you have selected the “Enable CLR Integration” option, another checkbox will be enabled named “Enable automatic execution of Integration Services stored procedure at SQL Server startup”. Click on this check box to enable the catalog startup stored procedure to run each time the SSIS server instance is restarted.
https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4097/understanding-the-sql-server-integration-services-catalog-and-creating-the-ssisdb-catalog/

NEW QUESTION 344
Drag and Drop
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to incrementally load new and changed records from a data source. The SSIS package must load new records into Table1 and updated records into Table1_Updates. After loading records, the package must call a Transact-SQL statement to process updated rows according to existing business logic. You need to complete the design of the SSIS package. Which tasks should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate SSIS objects to the correct targets. Each SSIS object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 3: The Data Flow task encapsulates the data flow engine that moves data between sources and destinations, and lets the user transform, clean, and modify data as it is moved. Addition of a Data Flow task to a package control flow makes it possible for the package to extract, transform, and load data.
Step 4: The CDC source reads a range of change data from SQL Server 2017 change tables and delivers the changes downstream to other SSIS component.
Step 5: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into different data flows for Insert, Update and Delete operations.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/cdc-control-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/data-flow-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/cdc-splitter?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 345
A database has tables named Table1, Table2, and Table3:
– Table1 has a foreign key relationship with Table2.
– Table2 has a foreign key relationship with Table3.
– Table1 does not have a direct relationship with Table3.
You need to recommend an appropriate dimension usage relationship. What should you recommend?

A.    many-to-one relationship
B.    referenced relationship
C.    regular dimension relationship
D.    fact relationship

Answer: B
Explanation:
A reference dimension relationship between a cube dimension and a measure group exists when the key column for the dimension is joined indirectly to the fact table through a key in another dimension table.
Incorrect:
Not C: A regular dimension relationship between a cube dimension and a measure group exists when the key column for the dimension is joined directly to the fact table.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensional-models-olap-logical-cube-objects/dimension-relationships

NEW QUESTION 346
You manage Master Data Services (MDS). You plan to create entities and attributes and load them with the data. You also plan to match data before loading it into Data Quality Services (DQS). You need to recommend a solution to perform the actions. What should you recommend?

A.    MDS Add-in for Microsoft Excel
B.    MDS Configuration Manager
C.    Data Quality Matching
D.    MDS Repository

Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Master Data Services Add-in for Excel, matching functionality is provided by Data Quality Services (DQS). This functionality must be enabled to be used:
1. To enable Data Quality Services integration.
2. Open Master Data Services Configuration Manager.
3. In the left pane, click Web Configuration.
4. On the Web Configuration page, select the website and web application.
5. In the Enable DQS Integration section, click Enable integration with Data Quality Services.
6. On the confirmation dialog box, click OK.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/install-windows/enable-data-quality-services-integration-with-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 347
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NEW QUESTION 436
When you configure a Cisco WLC, which task must you perform to enable central web authentication?

A.    Set the Layer 2 ACL option to None.
B.    Set the NAC State option to SNMP NAC.
C.    Set the NAC State option to RADIUS NAC.
D.    Set the NAC State option to None.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 437
Which guest service requires session services to be enabled on a cisco ISE node?

A.    administration service
B.    monitoring service
C.    posture service
D.    profiling service

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 438
What is required to implement Monitor Mode in a wireless network?

A.    Open authentication must be configured via Cisco WLC CLI.
B.    Wireless Monitor Mode policy should be enabled within Cisco ISE.
C.    Monitor mode in a wireless network is not possible.
D.    Cisco WLC should have this feature enabled inside the security properties for the WLAN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 439
You are managing a network environment in which clients that are successfully obtain a new VLAN IP address. Which timer can you use to increase the allowable amount of time for the client to undergo CoA?

A.    keepalive timer
B.    remediation timer
C.    network transaction delay timer
D.    minimum acceptable hold timer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 440
Which type of a sensor requires an embedded data collector in the switch to support profiling?

A.    DHCP sensor
B.    CDP sensor
C.    IOS sensor
D.    LLDP sensor

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 441
Which probe carries the IP address of the endpoint in the Framed-IP-Address attribute of the payload?

A.    DNS probe
B.    LLDP probe
C.    RADIUS probe
D.    DHCP probe

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 442
On which type of node does the Cisco ISE sponsor portal reside?

A.    Monitoring node
B.    Inline Policy node
C.    Policy Services node
D.    Administration node

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 443
Which task must you perform on a node before it can host Cisco ISE end-user web portals?

A.    Configure at least one SSID for guest access.
B.    Enable Captive Portal Bypass.
C.    Enable portal-policy services.
D.    Enable DHCP profiling.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 444
Which client interface or interfaces are provisioned when the Cisco ISE performs supplicant provisioning?

A.    wireless and wired interface
B.    wireless interface
C.    active interfaces
D.    wired interface

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 445
When a wireless client enters the noncompliant posture status, how can it restart the posture session?

A.    It must discount from the SSID for any interval and then reconnect.
B.    The wireless interface on the client must be disable and re-enabled.
C.    It must associate to a different SSID.
D.    It must disconnect from the SSID, wait for the idle timeout period to expire, and then reconnect.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 446
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 447
Which three options can be pushed from a cisco ISE server as part of a successful 802.1x authentication? (Choose three.)

A.    reauthentication
B.    authentication
C.    authentication
D.    VLAN
E.    posture status
F.    DACL

Answer: ADF

NEW QUESTION 448
Which two services does TACACS+ support? (Choose two.)

A.    SLIP
B.    ARAP
C.    S/MINE
D.    Native AD
E.    x-509

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 449
Which two troubleshooting tools are available within the diagnostics tools menu in cisco ISE? (Choose two.)

A.    TCP Dump
B.    Expert Troubleshooter
C.    Execute Network Device
D.    AAA Authentication Trouble
E.    Policy Validator

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 450
Which action must be taken by a Noncompliant wireless client to get out of quarantine status?

A.    Disconnect from the WLAN controller and let the idle.
B.    Adjust policy in BYOD portal.
C.    Perform a periodic reassessment.
D.    Download Posture Update.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 451
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NEW QUESTION 289
Which feature must be configured before you can implement a dynamic ARP inspection to validate an ARP packet?

A.    unicast RPF
B.    DHCP snooping
C.    IP Source Guard
D.    MACsec encryption

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 290
Which two statements about the VRRP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    VRRP allows the traffic load to be shared through the use of multiple VRRP groups.
B.    When the VRRP is configured to track a Layer 2 interface, the VRRP priority instantly reflects the state of the Layer 2 interface.
C.    The BFD for the VRRP can be configured only between two Cisco Nexus switches.
D.    vPC can forward traffic through both VRRP devices.
E.    The VRRP can be configured on the management interface.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 291
Which description of a MAC ACL is true?

A.    It filters based on the DSCP value.
B.    It is applied to egress traffic only.
C.    It is applied when DHCP snooping is enabled.
D.    It is applied to ingress traffic only.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 292
You have a Fibre Channel switch with one of its ports connected to a host. The host remains in the initializing state. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.    The FLOGI packet was dropped somewhere on the data path.
B.    The ELP process failed after the FLOGI occurred.
C.    The host is not powered on.
D.    The vFC interface on the host is configured to use an incorrect mode.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 293
Which statement accurately describes EPLD upgrades?

A.    A system reboot is required after an EPLD upgrade.
B.    They should be performed only if advised by the Cisco TAC.
C.    EPLD upgrades apply only to supervisor modules.
D.    They are disruptive to the module to which they are applied.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 294
Which statement about a configuration that uses OSPFv3 multiarea adjacency is true?

A.    A switch can support more than one address family by using point-to-multipoint.
B.    switch can operate in more than one area by using subinterfaces.
C.    Multiple VRFs can operate in different areas.
D.    The link on a primary interface can be in more than one area.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 295
Which ACL is applied first when a packet enters a Cisco Nexus Series Switch?

A.    port ACL
B.    ingress router ACL
C.    SGACL
D.    ingress VACL

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 296
When configuring PIM on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch, which mode requires you to configure an RP?

A.    SSM
B.    DM
C.    SDM
D.    BIDIR

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 297
Which database contains information about all of the devices that are currently registered in the fabric?

A.    RSCN
B.    FLOGI
C.    FDMI
D.    FCNS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 298
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the optional OSPF parameters from the left onto the correct functions on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 299
You are implementing a Cisco Fabric Path network. Which statement accurately describes the VN-Segment feature?

A.    The VN-Segment feature must be enabled on all leaf switches.
B.    Up to 16,000 VN segments are supported on a leaf switch.
C.    The VN-Segment feature must be enabled on all switches.
D.    The VN-Segment tag is added to VN-Segment edge ports.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 300
In Any Source Multicast groups which multicast enabled device supports shared trees?

A.    RP
B.    any router in the tree except for the RP
C.    first-hop router
D.    last-hop router

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 301
You have multiple OTV edge devices in each OTV site. Which configuration prevents an end-to-end STP loop?

A.    selective unicast flooding
B.    AED election
C.    FHRP filtering
D.    ARP local caching

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 302
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to prevent standard users from changing the wireless network settings on Computer1. The solution must allow administrators to modify the wireless network settings. What should you use?

A.    Windows Configuration Designer.
B.    MSConfig.
C.    Local Group Policy Editor.
D.    An MMC console that has the Group Policy Object Editor snap-in.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company has a wireless access point that uses WPA2-Enterprise. You need to configure a computer to connect to the wireless access point. What should you do first?

A.    Create a provisioning package in Windows Configuration Designer.
B.    Request a passphrase.
C.    Request and install a certificate.
D.    Create a Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) package.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/17137/windows-setting-up-wireless-network

NEW QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a user named Admin1. All computers run Windows 10. You enable Windows PowerShell remoting on the computers. You need to ensure that Admin1 can establish remote PowerShell connections to the computers. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which group should you add Admin1?

A.    Access Control Assistance Operators
B.    Power Users
C.    Remote Desktop Users
D.    Remote Management Users

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://4sysops.com/wiki/enable-powershell-remoting/

NEW QUESTION 4
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup. The computers have a low-bandwidth metered Internet connection. You need to reduce the amount of Internet bandwidth consumed to download updates. What should you configure?

A.    BranchCache in hosted mode
B.    BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C.    Delivery Optimization
D.    Background intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/4468254/windows-update-delivery-optimization-faq

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform. In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops. Some laptops frequently generate stop errors. You need to identify the cause of the issue. What should you use?

A.    Reliability Monitor
B.    Task Manager
C.    System Configuration
D.    Performance Monitor

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a folder. The folder contains sensitive data. You need to log which user reads the contents of the folder and modifies and deletes files in the folder.
Solution: From the properties of the folder, you configure the Auditing settings and from Audit Policy in the local Group Policy, you configure Audit object access.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.netwrix.com/how_to_detect_who_changed_file_or_folder_owner.html

NEW QUESTION 7
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company. You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver. You need to remove the update from Computer1.
Solution: From System Restore, you revert the system state to a restore point that was created before the update was installed.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows

NEW QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 1,000 computers that run Windows 10. You discover that when users are on their lock screen, they see a different background image every day, along with tips for using different features in Windows 10. You need to disable the tips and the daily background image for all the Windows 10 computers. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?

A.    Turn off the Windows Welcome Experience.
B.    Turn off Windows Spotlight on Settings.
C.    Do not suggest third-party content in Windows spotlight.
D.    Turn off all Windows spotlight features.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/configuration/windows-spotlight

NEW QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 has a local user named User1 who has a customized profile. On Computer1, you perform a clean installation of Windows 10 without formatting the drives. You need to migrate the settings of User1 from Windows7 to Windows 10. Which two actions should you perform? (To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/usmt/usmt-how-it-works

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates. You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements: The configuration must be managed from a central location. Internet traffic must be minimized. Costs must be minimized. How should you configure Windows Update? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-optimize-windows-10-updates
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-delivery-optimization

NEW QUESTION 11
You have several computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup and have BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) enabled. You join the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to ensure that you can recover the BitLocker recovery key for the computers from Azure AD. What should you do first?

A.    Disable BitLocker.
B.    Add a BitLocker key protector.
C.    Suspend BitLocker.
D.    Disable the TMP chip.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/prepare-your-organization-for-bitlocker-planning-and-policies#bitlocker-key-protectors

NEW QUESTION 12
……

Case Study 1 – Fabrikam, Inc.
Fabrikam, Inc. is a distribution company that has 500 employees and 100 contractors. Its network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. The forest is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). All the employees are assigned Microsoft 365 E3 licenses. The domain contains a user account for an employee named User10.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do?

A.    Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10.
B.    From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy Computer10.
C.    From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10.
D.    Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to recommend a solution to configure the employee VPN connections. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Remote Access Management Console
B.    Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
C.    Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK)
D.    Microsoft Intune

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/vpn/always-on-vpn/deploy/vpn-deploy-client-vpn-connections#bkmk_ProfileXML

NEW QUESTION 53
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. Contoso has IT, human resources (HR), and finance departments. Contoso recently opened a new branch office in San Diego. All the users in the San Diego office work from home.
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do?

A.    Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
B.    Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
C.    Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.
D.    Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to meet the technical requirement for the IT department users. What should you do first?

A.    Issue computer certificates.
B.    Distribute USB keys to the IT department users.
C.    Enable screen saver and configure a timeout.
D.    Turn on Bluetooth.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/4028111/windows-lock-your-windows-10-pc-automatically-when-you-step-away-from

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do?

A.    Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain.
B.    Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain.
C.    Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2.
D.    And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 59
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company uses Microsoft Intune to manage all devices. The company uses conditional access to restrict access to Microsoft 365 services for devices that do not comply with the company’s security policies. You need to identify which devices will be prevented from accessing Microsoft 365 services. What should you use?

A.    The Device Health solution in Windows Analytics.
B.    Windows Defender Security Center.
C.    The Device compliance blade in the Intune admin center.
D.    The Conditional access blade in the Azure Active Directory admin center.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You have 10 computers that run Windows 7 and have the following configurations:
– A single MBR disk
– A disabled TPM chip
– Disabled hardware virtualization
– UEFI firmware running in BIOS mode
– Enabled Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
You plan to upgrade the computers to Windows 10. You need to ensure that the computers can use Secure Boot. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Convert the MBR disk to a GPT disk
B.    Enable the TPM chip
C.    Disable DEP
D.    Enable hardware virtualization
E.    Convert the firmware from BIOS to UEFI

Answer: AE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/boot-to-uefi-mode-or-legacy-bios-mode

NEW QUESTION 3
You have 200 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (AD) and enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You need to enable self-service password reset on the sign-in screen. Which settings should you configure from the Microsoft Intune blade?

A.    Device configuration
B.    Device compliance
C.    Device enrollment
D.    Conditional access

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-sspr-windows

NEW QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You create a conditional access policy for Microsoft Exchange Online. You need to configure the policy to prevent access to Exchange Online unless is connecting from a device that is hybrid Azure AD-joined. Which settings should you configure?

A.    Locations
B.    Device platforms
C.    Sign-in risk
D.    Device state

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions#device-state

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company uses Microsoft Intune to manage devices. You need to ensure that only Android devices that use Android work profiles can enroll in Intune. Which two configurations should you perform in the device enrollment restrictions? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From Select platforms, set Android work profile to Allow.
B.    From Configure platforms, set Android Personally Owned to Block.
C.    From Configure platforms, set Android Personally Owned to Allow.
D.    From Select platforms, set Android to Block.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/InTune/enrollment-restrictions-set

NEW QUESTION 6
Your company uses Windows AutoPilot to configure the computer settings of computers issued to users. A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. User1 leaves the company. You plan to transfer the computer to a user named User2. You need to ensure that when User2 first starts the computer, User2 is prompted to select the language setting and to agree to the license agreement.
Solution: You perform a remote Windows AutoPilot Reset.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-reset-remote

NEW QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that feature and quality updates install automatically during a maintenance window.
Solution: From the Maintenance Scheduler settings, you configure Automatic Maintenance Random Delay.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/automatically-deploy-software-updates

NEW QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. All the users in the finance department own personal devices that run iOS or Android. All the devices are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. The finance department adds new users each month. The company develops a mobile application named App1 for the finance department users. You need to ensure that only the finance department users can download App1. What should you do first?

A.    Add App1 to Intune.
B.    Add App1 to a Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) deployment share.
C.    Add App1 to Microsoft Store for Business.
D.    Add App1 to the vendor stores for iOS and Android applications.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/apps-add

NEW QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The company uses Microsoft Intune to manage iOS, Android, and Windows 10 devices. The company plans to purchase 1,000 iOS devices. Each device will be assigned to a specific user. You need to ensure that the new iOS devices are enrolled automatically in Intune when the assigned user signs in for the first time. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-enrollment-program-enroll-ios

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
Your company has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 Pro. The company develops a proprietary Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app named App1. App1 is signed with a certificate from a trusted certification authority (CA). You need to sideload App1 to Computer1. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.windowscentral.com/how-enable-windows-10-sideload-apps-outside-store
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/application-management/sideload-apps-in-windows-10

NEW QUESTION 11
You have a shared computer that runs Windows 10. The computer is infected with a virus. You discover that a malicious TTF font was used to compromise the computer. You need to prevent this type of threat from affecting the computer in the future. What should you use?

A.    Windows Defender Exploit Guard
B.    Windows Defender Application Guard
C.    Windows Defender Credential Guard
D.    Windows Defender System Guard
E.    Windows Defender SmartScreen

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-exploit-guard/windows-defender-exploit-guard

NEW QUESTION 12
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc.
The Litware, Inc. has a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager deployment. During discovery, the company discovers a process where users are emailing bank account information of its customers to internal and external recipients. Its network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2012 R2. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Litware has the computers shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 51
What should you configure to meet the technical requirements for the Azure AD-joined computers?

A.    Windows Hello for Business from the Microsoft Intune blade in the Azure portal.
B.    The Accounts options in an endpoint protection profile.
C.    The Password Policy settings in a Group Policy object (GPO).
D.    A password policy from the Microsoft Office 365 portal.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-manage-in-organization

NEW QUESTION 52
What should you use to meet the technical requirements for Azure DevOps?

A.    An app protection policy
B.    Windows Information Protection (WIP)
C.    Conditional access
D.    A device configuration profile

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/accounts/manage-conditional-access?view=azure-devops

NEW QUESTION 53
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd, is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. Contoso has the users and computers shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to meet the technical requirements for the iOS devices. Which object should you create in Intune?

A.    A compliance policy
B.    An app protection policy
C.    A Deployment profile
D.    A device profile

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-restrictions-configure
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-restrictions-ios

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to meet the technical requirements for the IT department. What should you do first?

A.    From the Azure Active Directory blade in the Azure portal, enable Seamless single sign-on.
B.    From the Configuration Manager console, add an Intune subscription.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory blade in the Azure portal, configure the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings.
D.    From the Microsoft Intune blade in the Azure portal, configure the Windows enrollment settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/tutorial-co-manage-clients

NEW QUESTION 58
……


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NEW QUESTION 137
Which two objects must have multicast routing configured when implementing Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)

A.    Layer 3 In
B.    Bridge Domain
C.    SVI
D.    Leaf
E.    Layer 3 Out

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 138
You are integrating ten L4-7 devices that share the same configuration arameters and the same service policy mode in your ACI fabric network. Which APIC configuration feature will reduce the configuration overhead fort he L4-7 devices?

A.    Function Profile
B.    Device Package
C.    Graph Connector
D.    Service Graph

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 139
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of configuration?

A.    Add AS number 7 after the last AS number in the AS-Path list for all incoming routes to the ACI fabric network.
B.    Add AS number 7 after the last AS number in the AS-Path list for all the outgoing routes from the ACI fabric network.
C.    Add AS number seven times for all the incoming routes to the ACI fabric network.
D.    Add AS number seven times for all the outgoing routes from the ACI fabric network.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. You create a static VLAN pool to be used for VMM integration. On which component do you configure the VLANs in the pool?

A.    Cisco AVS
B.    DVS
C.    Fabric interconnect
D.    VMware vSwitch

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 141
Refer to the exhibit. Which component must you create to deploy the application profile?

A.    Global policy
B.    Private network
C.    Domain
D.    EPG

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 142
Which option does a service graph template contain?

A.    Group of logical devices
B.    Collection of user steps
C.    Group of network configurations
D.    Collection of meta-devices

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 143
Which statement describes an endpoint retention policy behaviour of learned endpoints when subnets of a bridge domain are configured to be enforced?

A.    It removes learned endpoints from the endpoint retention cache when a remote device times out.
B.    It retains the IP Addresses of the learned endpoint contained outside the bridge subnets.
C.    It retains policy information about remote endpoints by using the leaf switches.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the configuration of the Cisco2?

A.    Cisco2 will be a trunk port.
B.    The description is Parent_Port.
C.    The MTU value is 9000.
D.    The max-ports value is 16.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 145
You are attempting to install a switch remotely. You have a POAP script that fails to find a specified boot image on the switch. Which action do you take?

A.    Abort the provisioning process.
B.    Download a copy of the image used by the script.
C.    Reboot the switch.
D.    Adjust the script to use any image on the switch.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the configuration of the Cisco Nexus 1000V series switch is true?

A.    Packet VLAN is a private VLAN.
B.    VSM connects to the VMware vCenter server.
C.    Mgmt0 is a Layer 2 interface.
D.    SVS mode is set to L3.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 147
Which two objects can be placed in VRF?

A.    Console interface
B.    Layer 3 subinterfaces
C.    Layer 2 subinterfaces
D.    VDC associated to the VRF
E.    Routing protocol instance

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 148
Which offer is selected when a Cisco Nexus Series switch multiple DHCP offers during the POAP DHCP discover phase?

A.    The offer has the highest TFTP server IP address is selected.
B.    The first offer is selected.
C.    An offer is selected randomly.
D.    The offer has the lowest TFTP server IP address is selected.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 149
Which description of the Cisco AVS is true?

A.    The AVS supports individual interface policies.
B.    The AVS supports PC, VPC, MAC pinning and FEX interface policies.
C.    The AVS implements the device package for control plane communication.
D.    VLAN or VXLAN encapsulation can be used in No Local Switching mode.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 150
You are implementing an ACI network with switches that are running the Multiple Spanning Tree Ptotocol. Which two actions are required fort his configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    Create MST EPG fort he native VLAN to carry the BPDU.
B.    Map MST instances to interface profiles.
C.    Create MST Private network for the native VLAN to carry the BPDU.
D.    Map MST instances to VLANs.
E.    Create MST bridge domain for the native VLAN to carry the BBDU.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 151
You are implementing multicast routing between bridge domains for a client who is running ACI version 3.0 with Nexus ACI first-generation switches. What s required for multicast to operate?

A.    PIM Any Source Multicast protocol.
B.    Bootstrap router for RP to group mapping.
C.    PIM Source Specific Multicast protocol.
D.    An external router to perform multicast routing between the bridge domains.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 152
……


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NEW QUESTION 261
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program end campaign management?

A.    Cisco WebEx Event Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Training Center

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 262
In a Resident and Scalable Meeting Servers solution where should TURN Servers be configured?

A.    CMS Edge
B.    CMS Core
C.    UCM Server
D.    TelePresence Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 263
Which ports are used for SIP calling on the Expressway?

A.    164 and 323
B.    5060 and 5061
C.    1719 and 1720
D.    80 and 443

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 264
Which is a Call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?

A.    Cisco Content Server
B.    Cisco Meeting Server
C.    Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
D.    Cisco Expressway

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 265
Which protocol is used for an immersive telepresence meeting?

A.    H.239
B.    Assent
C.    TIP
D.    H.323

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 266
What is a function of an endpoint?

A.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
B.    To act us a traffic cop for network communication.
C.    To schedule calls.
D.    To provide an audio and video interlace for the user.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 267
Which room system can also function as a white board?

A.    Spark Board
B.    MX800
C.    SX20
D.    SX10

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268
How is the Management Connector configured for Cisco Spark hybrid?

A.    From the Web interface of Spark Administration.
B.    From the Web interface of the Expressway Edge.
C.    From the Web interface of the Expressway Core and the Web Interface of Spark Administration.
D.    From the Web interface of the Expressway Core.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 269
Which is included in an endpoint’s registration request message sent to a SIP Server?

A.    E 164 URI
B.    E 164 address
C.    SIP Server IP address
D.    Endpoint IP address

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 270
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    Telepresence Server
B.    Cisco Meeting Server
C.    Spark
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 271
What is the only WebEx product that can used in a CMR Cloud solution?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Event Center

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 272
What do Enterprise Settings on Cisco Spark determine?

A.    API integration.
B.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.
C.    BOT integration.
D.    Where user information comes from.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 273
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?

A.    Calling
B.    Meeting
C.    Room Registration
D.    Messaging

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 274
Which is a protocol used for sharing content?

A.    TIP
B.    Assent
C.    H.239
D.    H.323

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 275
Which Cisco WebEX product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Event Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 276
In which call processing stage can an alias be changed by a rule into another form?

A.    Search Rules
B.    Find Rules
C.    Hunt Rules
D.    Conference Rules

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 277
Which Cisco Spark Bot type act as a text-based remote control for external services?

A.    Controllers
B.    SMS to Spark Bot
C.    Notifier
D.    Assistants

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 278
When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Script be saved?

A.    .xml
B.    .json
C.    .js
D.    .mp4

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 279
Which Cisco WebEx products can support over 5,000 attendees?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Event Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 280
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

A.    The ability to register desktop phones.
B.    Global phone books.
C.    SRST redundancy.
D.    The ability to register video endpoints.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 281
……


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NEW QUESTION 211
A user logs into a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series device and issues a show vpc brief command but the user does not see any output. What could cause this issue?

A.    The user needs to enable the vPC feature.
B.    The user does not have admin level privilege.
C.    The vPC peer link is down.
D.    The command is not valid.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 212
Which two descriptions of a virtual interface card are true? (Choose two.)

A.    consolidates SAN and LAN networks into a single network and increases the number of physical connectors
B.    physical network adapter that allows you to create multiple virtual NlCs and HBAs
C.    can have unique adapter polities applied to each vNIC and each vHBA
D.    decreases total cost of ownership by physically separating traffic between multiple vNICs and vHBAs
E.    highly efficient and physically segments LAN and SAN traffic into different networks

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 213
Refer to the exhibit. Which two ports are VE ports in this FCoE topology? (Choose two.)

A.    A
B.    B
C.    C
D.    D
E.    E
F.    F

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. Which benefit of a vHBA template pair is true?

A.    Requires that you configure vHBA pairs independently.
B.    Allows the use of fewer IP addresses in the WWPN pool.
C.    Enables you to group vHBAs that share attributes.
D.    Provides redundancy by linking to another template that uses fabric B.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 215
Which two server properties can be defined within a service profile? (Choose two.)

A.    RAID controller type
B.    CPU speed
C.    Memory capacity
D.    MAC address
E.    NIC count

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 216
Which two cloud types are deployment models used in cloud computing? (Choose two.)

A.    collapsed cloud
B.    hybnd cloud
C.    public cloud
D.    layered cloud
E.    automatic cloud

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 217
Which equipment policy is directly affected by the number of links between a fabric interconnect and an I/O module?

A.    global power allocation policy
B.    rack management connection policy
C.    firmware auto sync server policy
D.    chassis/FEX discovery policy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 218
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the workflow is true?

A.    It attempts to associate the service profile to another blade.
B.    It completes in a failed state.
C.    It pauses while waiting for user input.
D.    It deletes the service profile.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 219
Which option accurately describes the utility of a service offering in Cisco UCS Director?

A.    describes the application requirements
B.    selects resources based on the application requirements
C.    describes the capabilities of a hardware component
D.    describes the infrastructure that is required for the deployment of an application

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 220
How does a Cisco APIC discover a new switch in the fabric?

A.    by using a defined APIC policy
B.    by querying an APIC cluster node
C.    by using a cascading discovery process
D.    by using SNMP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 221
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the Cisco Unified Fabric feature characteristics on the left to the correct technology on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 222
Which description of a Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM module is true?

A.    It runs over the data plane.
B.    It is responsible for communications with VMware.
C.    It provides a data plane of the 1000v system.
D.    It is responsible for communications with VMware vCenter and the VEM configuration.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 223
……


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NEW QUESTION 474
Which two actions can an end user take to manage a lost or stolen device in Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)

A.    Reinstate a device that the user previously marked as lost or stolen.
B.    Activate Cisco ISE Endpoint protection Services to quarantine the device.
C.    Request revocation of the digital certificate of the device.
D.    Add the MAC address of the device to a list of blacklisted devices.
E.    Force the device to be locked with a PIN.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 475
What are two default behaviors of the traffic on a zone based firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    The CBAC rules that are configured on router interfaces apply to zone interfaces.
B.    Communication is blocked between interfaces that are members of the same zone.
C.    Traffic within the self zone uses an implicit deny all.
D.    All traffic between zones is implicity blocked.
E.    Communication is allowed between interfaces that are members of the same zone.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 476
What is an advantage of split tunneling?

A.    It allows users with a VPN connection to a corporate network to access the Internet by using the VPN for security.
B.    It enables the VPN server to filter traffic more efficiently.
C.    It allows users with a VPN connection to a corporate network to access the Internet without sending traffic across the corporate network.
D.    It protects traffic on the private network from users on the public network.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 477
Which IDS/IPS state misidentifies acceptable behavior as an attack?

A.    false positive
B.    false negative
C.    true positive
D.    true negative

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 478
Which type of social engineering attack targets top executives?

A.    baiting
B.    vishing
C.    whaling
D.    spear phishing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 479
Which type of firewall monitors and protects a specific system?

A.    proxy firewall
B.    stateless firewall
C.    application firewall
D.    personal firewall

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
On an ASA, which maps are used to identify traffic?

A.    Policy maps
B.    Class maps
C.    Route maps
D.    Service maps

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 481
Which two roles of the Cisco WSA are true? (Choose two.)

A.    web proxy
B.    URL filter
C.    antispam
D.    IPS
E.    firewall

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 482
Which command do you enter to verify the Phase 1 status of a VPN connection?

A.    debug crypto isakmp
B.    sh crypto session
C.    sh crypto isakmp sa
D.    sh crypto ipsec sa

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 483
Which command enables authentication at the OSPFv2 routing process level?

A.    area 0 authentication message-digest
B.    area 0 authentication ipsec spi 500 md5 1234567890ABCDEF1234567890ABCDEF
C.    ip ospf authentication message-digest
D.    ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 C1sc0!

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 484
What is the maximum number of methods that a single method list can contain?

A.    4
B.    3
C.    2
D.    5

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 485
Which IPS detection method examines network traffic for preconfigured patterns?

A.    signature-based detection
B.    policy-based detection
C.    anomaly-based detection
D.    honey-pot detection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 486
……


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NEW QUESTION 401
An engineer must create a SIP trunk profile on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which menu navigation sequence accomplishes this task?

A.    System > Service Parameters > SIP Trunk Security Profile
B.    Device > Device Setting > SIP Trunk Security Profile
C.    System > Security > SIP Trunk Security Profile
D.    Device > Trunk

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NEW QUESTION 402
Which feature enables the hosting of a multipoint conference locally on a Cisco TelePresence endpoint without the use of an external bridge?

A.    multisite
B.    MCU
C.    multipoint
D.    VCS
E.    multiway

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 403
A Cisco TelePresence EX90 endpoint is not registering successfully, and the endpoint IP address is not known. What is the proper method to obtain the current IP address of the device?

A.    Reboot the device, and watch the screen for the IP address at system boot.
B.    Use Telnet to connect to the MAC address of the device, and type “STATICA”.
C.    Display the IP on the Cisco TelePresence EX90 screen by using the Cisco TelePresence Remote Control.
D.    Connect a computer to the NIC on the Cisco TelePresence EX90, and enable DHCP.
E.    Use the Cisco TelePresence Touch Control system menu.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 404
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which step is required as part of this process?

A.    Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
B.    Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
C.    Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D.    Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 405
An engineer wants to select a different camera layout to send to different users. Which video surveillance software component allows camera layouts?

A.    Virtual Matrix
B.    Operations Manager
C.    Integrated Services Router
D.    Media Server

Answer: A
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION 406
Which Cisco TelePresence system includes three cameras and a second row of seating for meeting participants?

A.    TelePresence TX9000
B.    Cisco TelePresence System 1300
C.    Cisco TelePresence System 1100
D.    Cisco TelePresence TX9200

Answer: D
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION 407
What are two characteristics of room acoustics regarding Cisco TelePresence Systems that should be avoided? (Choose two.)

A.    low ambient SPL
B.    high reverberation
C.    ambient noise level < 36dBA
D.    ambient noise level > 36dBA
E.    NRC of .75

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 408
……


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NEW QUESTION 615
Which route source has a lower administrative cost than BGP?

A.    RIP
B.    a connected interface
C.    OSPF
D.    an IBGP route

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 616
An engineer is designing a Cisco Unified Communications deployment for a customer with small sites across the country. Which deployment model keeps the call control at the data center of the primary site?

A.    campus deployments
B.    distributed deployment
C.    multisite deployment model with centralized call processing
D.    cloud hybrid service deployment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 617
A small business owner has 200 staff members that occupy two floors of a building. The owner wants to reduce the network infrastructure costs without losing too much network resiliency and scalability. Which action meets these requirements?

A.    Combine access and core layers into one layer and keeping all other layers.
B.    Combine access and distribution layers into one layer and keep all other layers.
C.    Exclude access and distribution layer switches and connect everything to redundant core switches.
D.    Combine core and distribution layers into one layer and keep all other layers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 618
Which key feature does a modular design approach provide?

A.    performance
B.    manageability
C.    efficiency
D.    fault isolation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 619
An organization must decide which routing protocol to use throughout its network. If routing is performed at the access layer, which factor must the organization consider?

A.    reduced network scalability when introducing numerous switch blocks into the routing table
B.    centralized management of ACLs at the distribution layer
C.    reliability when implementing routing over STP at the access layer
D.    performance differences between core, distribution, and access layer equipment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 620
When designing enterprise networks, which two elements help to achieve IP routing efficiency? (Choose two.)

A.    using two different IGP protocols
B.    supernettmg
C.    static routing
D.    hierarchical addressing
E.    dynamic IP addressing

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 621
Which statement about route summarization is true?

A.    Summarization is supported by every routing protocol.
B.    EIGRP can be configured to automatically summarize VLSM networks.
C.    When it is implemented routing tables are smaller.
D.    ACLs can be applied to automatically summarize routes.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 622
Which two features are benefits of a modular network design? (Choose two.)

A.    higher scalability
B.    intelligent network services
C.    ease of troubleshooting
D.    end-to-end security
E.    improved fault isolation

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 623
Cisco Unified Wireless networks support two campus design models, Centralized or Local Mode and Cisco FlexConnect. Which statement about the Local Mode design model is true?

A.    The wireless LAN controller and access points are co-located.
B.    It is recommended for remote-site deployments.
C.    It is recommended for sites that use less than 50 Aps.
D.    It is recommended for sites with a local WAN distribution layer.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 624
An engineer must design a new data center network and must reduce hardware costs while allowing for the benefits of a hierarchical network model. Which layer is combined with the distribution layer by a single device to accomplish this goal?

A.    campus
B.    access
C.    DMZ
D.    core

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 625
What is a benefit of deploying Cisco IPS devices in inline mode?

A.    faster network convergence
B.    decreased network latency
C.    improved service availability
D.    timely threat detection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 626
Which two characteristics are advantages of the top-down approach to network design? (Choose two.)

A.    Generally is the fastest approach.
B.    The resulting design is optimized for the business requirements of the organization.
C.    The designer can delay testing until the end of the project.
D.    The resulting design can meet both current and future requirements.
E.    Does not require a throuough initial need analysis.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 627
Which two types of files are the most common used in APIs for programmabtlity? (Choose two.)

A.    HTML
B.    PERL
C.    BASH
D.    JSON
E.    XML

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 628
Which advantage of using Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

A.    utilizes all available uplink bandwidth
B.    allows fast convergence after failure of a link or device
C.    allows dual-homed servers operate in active-active mode
D.    prevents network loops

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 629
A customer ts questioning the additional infrastructure that is needed to design a three-tiered, hierarchical network. Which feature is a benefit of the distribution layer In a traditional design?

A.    creates access layer resiliency
B.    isolation of faults between the access and core layers
C.    extends the Layer 2 and Layer 3 boundary to the core layer
D.    provides additional security services against unauthorized access

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 630
An engineer must build an enterprise network that can operate with a limited amount of employees. In which two ways can the engineer use the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A.    manage
B.    share
C.    learn
D.    operate
E.    build

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 631
Which type of WAN connection do you use for a low-latency application that is only available across a WAN?

A.    IPsec over the Internet
B.    MPLS VPN
C.    Dial-up
D.    Unencrypted GRE over the Internet

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 632
A customer is deploying a centralized communications infrastructure to a small remote construction site that has sateilite-based Internet connectivity if the expected latency is about 500 ms, which description of the user experience is true?

A.    minimal delay and conversation overlap
B.    phones will not complete registration to the centralized cluster
C.    significant delay and conversation overlap
D.    no delay or conversation overlap

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 633
What occurs to traffic when a Cisco APIC is removed from the data path of a Cisco ACI?

A.    The fabric continues to forward the traffic.
B.    The traffic is lost during convergence.
C.    The traffic is queued during convergence.
D.    The fabnc reroutes the traffic to another APIC.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 634
Which network size can provide six /25 subnets while wasting the smallest number of IP addresses?

A.    19
B.    16
C.    22
D.    23

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 635
Which feature enables the VRRP-enabled router to regain the master VRRP status upon recovery from a failure?

A.    tracking
B.    preemption
C.    delay
D.    priority

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 636
Which network element must be summarized in a multiarea OSPF deployment?

A.    IP address
B.    number of routes
C.    communities
D.    link state advertisements

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 637
An engineer is designing a new modular network topoiogy. What is one advantage to using a hierarchical design?

A.    It supports unequal cost paths.
B.    It provides additional fault tolerance.
C.    It enables the network to scale.
D.    It manually controls failover.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 638
Based on best practices which QoS profile should be configured on the WLAN of the WLC for wireless VoIP communications?

A.    Platinum
B.    Bronze
C.    Silver
D.    Gold

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 639
When designing a high availability network, which option can be classified as a fault domain?

A.    single power supply devices in a network design
B.    nonredundant devices in the network design
C.    every tier in the network design
D.    collapsed core in a network design

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 640
While preparing an overview of Internet facing DMZ for a customer, a consultant must identify the functionality to be placed in the DMZ. Which two functionalities are best suited for use in a DMZ? (Choose two.)

A.    enterprise NTP source
B.    DDOS protection
C.    remote access VPN termination
D.    web load balancer
E.    web security appliance

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 641
……


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NEW QUESTION 407
Which VPN technology is preferred to reduce latency and provide encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub?

A.    DMVPN
B.    IPsec
C.    FlexVPN
D.    GETVPN

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 408
Which option is a benefit of ECC as compared to public key cryptography?

A.    improves security by using a large key size
B.    increases speed by using many algorithm methods
C.    increases speed by using a small key
D.    improves security by using many keys

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 409
What are two benefits of SSL VPN versus IPSec VPN when considering a remote-access VPN technology? (Choose two.)

A.    It is accessible via web browser.
B.    It leverages existing network infrastructure.
C.    It minimizes desktop support.
D.    It allows for increased client customization.
E.    It works in environments that are heavily filtered.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 410
What represents a possible network configuration issue in clientless SSL VPN deployments?

A.    The AnyConnect version is not up to date.
B.    The VPN IP pool is exhausted.
C.    The SSL server public certificate is untrusted.
D.    NAT exemption has not been configured.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 411
Which statement about the local and remote methods in an IKEv2 authentication exchange is true?

A.    They must be different.
B.    They must be the same.
C.    They may be the same or different.
D.    There must be one local and two remote methods.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 412
An engineer must set up a site-to-site VPN implementation with an any-to-any topology that provides secure routing across the router backbone. Which VPN technology allows a shared IPSec SA to be used?

A.    GETVPN
B.    FlexVPN
C.    IPsec
D.    DMVPN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 413
An engineer has deployed Cisco IOS crypto-map based VPN and wants to ensure that state information is shared in an HA group. Which high availabilit technology must be used?

A.    GLBP
B.    VRRP
C.    HSRP
D.    HSRP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 414
Which option is a benefit of DTLS as compared to TLS?

A.    increases reliability
B.    increases performance
C.    controls packet loss
D.    controls packet order

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 415
You are designing a remote VPN solution that will use the Cisco AnyConnect client. By default, which type of traffic should you enable on the perimeter firewall to allow users to initiate sessions from the LAN to an external Cisco ASA?

A.    TCP port 443 in TLS mode
B.    UDP port 848 in DTLS mode
C.    UDP ports 500 and 4500
D.    TCP port 8443 in DTLS mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 416
A network engineer testing a clientless VPN connection on a local workstation sees the “Clientless (browser) SSL VPN access is not allowed.” message in the web browser. Which command remediates the problem?

A.    vpn-tunnel-protocol ssl-clientless
B.    deny-message none
C.    svc dtls enable
D.    auto-signon allow uri cifs://X.X.X.XT auth-type all

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417
A network engineer wants to send multicast traffic between two routers that are separated by an IP cloud. The network engineer has access to the two routers, but does not have administrative control of the devices within the IP cloud. How can this goal be accomplished?

A.    Use IP PIM dense-mode.
B.    Configure a crypto-map based site-to-site VPN between the two routers.
C.    Turn on IP multicast routing.
D.    Configure a generic routing encapsulation tunnel.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 418
Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    registration request
B.    registration reply
C.    resolution request
D.    resolution reply
E.    redirect

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 419
During an SSL session between a client and a server, who is responsible for generating the master key that generates the symmetric keys that are use during the session?

A.    cipher suite
B.    public key infrastructure
C.    client browser
D.    web server

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 420
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the steps on the left into the correct order of DMVPN process execution for quick mode exchange on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 421
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
In a Client to Server scenario, which represents that the packet has already checked against the tables and the Rule Base?

A.    Big l
B.    Little o
C.    Little i
D.    Big O

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.    Gateway API
B.    Management API
C.    OPSC SDK
D.    Threat Prevention API

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/APIs/#introduction%20

NEW QUESTION 3
What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

A.    2
B.    1
C.    4
D.    6

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm

NEW QUESTION 4
In R80.10, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

A.    Through the Unified Policy.
B.    Through the Mobile Console.
C.    From SmartDashboard.
D.    From the Dedicated Mobility Tab.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
What command verifies that the API server is responding?

A.    api stat
B.    api status
C.    show api_status
D.    app_get_status

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.hurricanelabs.com/blog/check-point-api-merging-management-servers-with-r80-10

NEW QUESTION 6
Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

A.    fw tab -t
B.    fw tab -s
C.    fw tab -n
D.    fw tab -k

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

A.    Capsule Workspace
B.    Capsule Mail
C.    Capsule VPN
D.    Secure Workspace

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/mobile-secure-workspace/

NEW QUESTION 8
You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.    write mem <filename>
B.    show config -f <filename>
C.    save config -o <filename>
D.    save configuration <filename>

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

A.    fwm
B.    cpd
C.    cpwd
D.    fwssd

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97638

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R80.10?

A.    Identity Awareness Web Services
B.    OPSEC SDK
C.    Mobile Access
D.    Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

A.    AES-128
B.    AES-256
C.    DES
D.    3DES

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which GUI client is supported in R80?

A.    SmartProvisioning
B.    SmartView Tracker
C.    SmartView Monitor
D.    SmartLog

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
An Account Unit is the interface between the ____ and the ____.

A.    Users, Domain
B.    Gateway, Resources
C.    System, Database
D.    Clients, Server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
The process ____ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.

A.    FWD
B.    CPLMD
C.    FWM
D.    CPD

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A.    Management Dashboard
B.    Gateway
C.    Personal User Storage
D.    Behavior Risk Engine

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/docs/DOC-3072-sandblast-mobile-architecture-overview

NEW QUESTION 16
Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?

A.    LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID.
B.    DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS.
C.    LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID.
D.    LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

A.    Check Point Remote User
B.    Check Point Capsule Workspace
C.    Check Point Mobile Web Portal
D.    Check Point Capsule Remote

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/41723.htm

NEW QUESTION 18
Connections to the Check Point R80 Web API use what protocol?

A.    HTTPS
B.    RPC
C.    VPN
D.    SIC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19
What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

A.    Threat Emulation
B.    Threat Simulator
C.    Threat Extraction
D.    Threat Cloud

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20
By default, the R80 web API uses which content-type in its response?

A.    Java Script
B.    XML
C.    Text
D.    JSON

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of to the following is true about Capsule Connect?

A.    It is a full layer 3 VPN client.
B.    It offers full enterprise mobility management.
C.    It is supported only on IOS phones and Windows PCs.
D.    It does not support all VPN authentication methods.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22
The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How many times per day will cpuse agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

A.    Six times per day.
B.    Seven times per day.
C.    Every two hours.
D.    Every three hours.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23
Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

A.    Correlation Unit
B.    SmartEvent Unit
C.    SmartEvent Server
D.    Log Server

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 24
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You deploy an application that performs sentiment analysis on the data stored in Azure Cosmos DB. Recently, you loaded a large amount of data to the database. The data was for a customer named Contoso, Ltd. You discover that queries for the Contoso data are slow to complete, and the queries slow the entire application. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for the queries to complete. The solution must minimize costs. What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Change the requests units.
B.    Change the partitioning strategy.
C.    Change the transaction isolation level.
D.    Migrate the data to the Cosmos DB database.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company recently deployed several hardware devices that contain sensors. The sensors generate new data on an hourly basis. The data generated is stored on-premises and retained for several years. During the past two months, the sensors generated 300 GB of data. You plan to move the data to Azure and then perform advanced analytics on the data. You need to recommend an Azure storage solution for the data. Which storage solution should you recommend?

A.    Azure Queue storage
B.    Azure Cosmos Database
C.    Azure Blob storage
D.    Azure SQL Database

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/data-storage

NEW QUESTION 3
You are developing a mobile application that will perform optical character recognition (OCR) from photos. The application will annotate the photos by using metadata, store the photos in Azure Blob storage, and then score the photos by using an Azure Machine Learning model. What should you use to process the data?

A.    Azure Event Hubs
B.    Azure Functions
C.    Azure Stream Analytics
D.    Azure Logic Apps

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You have thousands of images that contain text. You need to process the text from the images into a machine-readable character stream. Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use?

A.    Translator Text
B.    Text Analytics
C.    Computer Vision
D.    Image Moderation API

Answer: C
Explanation:
With Computer Vision you can detect text in an image using optical character recognition (OCR) and extract the recognized words into a machine-readable character stream.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/computer-vision/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/content-moderator/image-moderation-api

NEW QUESTION 5
You are designing an Al workflow that will aggregate data stored in Azure as JSON documents. You expect to store more than 2 TB of new data daily. You need to choose the data storage service for the data. The solution must minimize costs. Which data storage service should you choose?

A.    Azure File Storage
B.    Azure Manage Disks
C.    Azure Data Lake Storage
D.    Azure Blob Storage

Answer: D
Explanation:
Generally, Data Lake will be a bit more expensive although they are in close range of each other. Blob storage has more options for pricing depending upon things like how frequently you need to access your data (cold vs hot storage). Data Lake is priced on volume, so it will go up as you reach certain tiers of volume.
http://blog.pragmaticworks.com/azure-data-lake-vs-azure-blob-storage-in-data-warehousing

NEW QUESTION 6
You plan to design an application that will use data from Azure Data Lake and perform sentiment analysis by using Azure Machine Learning algorithms. The developers of the application use a mix of Windows-based and Linux-based environments. The developers contribute to shared GitHub repositories. You need all the developers to use the same tool to develop the application. What is the best tool to use? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Microsoft Visual Studio Code
B.    Azure Notebooks
C.    Azure Machine Learning Studio
D.    Microsoft Visual Studio

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/studio/algorithm-choice.md

NEW QUESTION 7
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster. You are troubleshooting a node issue. You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, SSH keys are generated when you create an AKS cluster. If you did not specify your own SSH keys when you created your AKS cluster, add your public SSH keys to the AKS nodes. You also need to create an SSH connection to the AKS node.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

NEW QUESTION 8
You need to deploy cognitive search. You provision an Azure Search service. What should you do next?

A.    Search by using the .NET SDK.
B.    Load data.
C.    Search by using the REST API.
D.    Create an index.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You create a data source, a skillset, and an index. These three components become part of an indexer that pulls each piece together into a single multi-phased operation.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/cognitive-search-tutorial-blob

NEW QUESTION 9
You create several AI models in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You deploy the models to a production environment. You need to monitor the compute performance of the models.
Solution: You write a custom scoring script.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to enable Model data collection.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/service/how-to-enable-data-collection

NEW QUESTION 10
Your company has recently purchased and deployed 25,000 IoT devices. You need to recommend a data analysis solution for the devices that meets the following requirements:
– Each device must use its own credentials for identity.
– Each device must be able to route data to multiple endpoints.
– The solution must require the minimum amount of customized code.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft Azure Notification Hubs
B.    Microsoft Azure Event Hubs
C.    Microsoft Azure IoT Hub
D.    Microsoft Azure Service Bus

Answer: C
Explanation:
An IoT hub has a default built-in endpoint. You can create custom endpoints to route messages to by linking other services in your subscription to the hub. Individual devices connect using credentials stored in the IoT hub’s identity registry.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-security

NEW QUESTION 11
Drag and Drop
You are designing an Al solution that will analyze media data. The data will be stored in Azure Blob storage. You need to ensure that the storage account is encrypted by using a key generated by the hardware security module (HSM) of your company. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 12
HotSpot
You plan to deploy an Azure Data Factory pipeline that will perform the following: Move data from on-premises to the cloud. Consume Azure Cognitive Services APIs. You need to recommend which technologies the pipeline should use. The solution must minimize custom code. What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Machine Learning model that is deployed to a web service. You plan to publish the web service by using the name ml.contoso.com. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that access to the web service is encrypted. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Generate a shared access signature (SAS)
B.    Obtain an SSL certificate
C.    Add a deployment slot
D.    Update the web service
E.    Update DNS
F.    Create an Azure Key Vault

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/service/how-to-secure-web-service

NEW QUESTION 14
……

Case Study 1 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. has an office in New York to serve its North American customers and an office in Paris to serve its European customers. Each office has a small data center that hosts Active Directory services and a few off-the-shelf software solutions used by internal users. The network contains a single Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named contoso.com. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect is used to extend identity management to Azure.
……

NEW QUESTION 96
Which RBAC role should you assign to the KeyManagers group?

A.    Cognitive Services Contributor
B.    Security Manager
C.    Cognitive Services User
D.    Security Administrator

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 97
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the technical requirements. What is the best data storage solution to recommend? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Azure Databricks
B.    Azure SQL Database
C.    Azure Table Storage
D.    Azure Cosmos DB

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 98
You need to design the Butler chatbot solution to meet the technical requirements. What is the best channel and pricing tier to use? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal Select the BEST answer.)

A.    standard channels that use the S1 pricing tier
B.    standard channels that use the Free pricing tier
C.    premium channels that use the Free pricing tier
D.    premium channels that use the S1 pricing tier

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 99
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one another, but can communicate with required services. Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)

A.    vSphere Host Firewall
B.    Private VLAN
C.    VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
D.    Port Filtering

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 2
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with enabling upstream failure detection for networking in an environment that does not support link state tracking. Which statement is a VMware recommended option?

A.    Satisfy prerequisites and enable Beacon probing.
B.    Enable Explicit failover order and ensure Failback is selected.
C.    Enable Explicit failover order and ensure Notify Switches is selected.
D.    Configure a port-channel with LACP.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
What three steps are necessary to enable Jumbo Frames for use with an iSCSI storage array? (Choose three.)

A.    Configure the MTU on the VMKernel port.
B.    Configure the MTU on the virtual switch.
C.    Configure the MTU on the physical switch.
D.    Configure the MTU on the LAG group.
E.    Configure the MTU on the VTEP.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 4
When trying to export the vApp to the OVF, the option is grayed out. What solution allows for the export of a vApp?

A.    The vApp is marked as Non-Exportable.
B.    Logout of the vSphere Client and use the vSphere WebClient.
C.    Change the portgroup where the VMs are connected to.
D.    PowerOff the vApp.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two formats are supported for exporting a VM to a storage media? (Choose two.)

A.    EXE
B.    OVF
C.    OVA
D.    ISO

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 6
Which two resource types can be limited on the vApp level? (Choose two.)

A.    Network
B.    CPU
C.    Storage
D.    Memory

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 7
A vSphere administrator is required to apply security hardening policies following the VMware vSphere Hardening Guide recommendations. Which tool enables native compliance reporting for these guidelines?

A.    VMware vCenter Server
B.    VMware vRealize Operations Manager
C.    VMware vSphere Update Manager
D.    VMware AirWatch

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which state does VMware recommend an ESXi host be in before removing the ESXi host from a DRS cluster?

A.    Powered off
B.    Quarantine mode
C.    Disconnected
D.    Maintenance mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
Which password meets the default password requirements in ESXi 6.x?

A.    Xqa_hin3
B.    xTaMEhb!
C.    xQA!3h
D.    Xqavntthi3

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Which function key command will allow a vSphere administrator to access ESXi shell?

A.    Alt + F12
B.    Alt + F1
C.    Alt + F2
D.    Alt + F11

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct when licensing an ESXi 6.x host? (Choose two.)

A.    ESXi licenses can only applied to ESXi hosts connected to a vCenter Server.
B.    Bulk licensing requires vSphere Auto Deploy to be enabled.
C.    ESXi licenses can be assigned utilizing the ESXi host client.
D.    Bulk licensing requires vSphere PowerCLI.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about LACP support with the vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose two.)

A.    LACP works with MAC hash load balancing.
B.    LACP works with software iSCSI multipathing.
C.    LACP does not work with host profiles.
D.    LACP does not work with port mirroring.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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NEW QUESTION 94
You deploy Microsoft Azure Information Protection. You need to ensure that a security administrator named SecAdmin1 can always read and inspect data protected by Azure Rights Management (Azure RMS). What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, add User1 to the Discovery Manager role group.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, add User1 to the Security Reader role group.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, add User1 to the Compliance Administrator role group.
D.    From Windows PowerShell, enable the super user feature and assign the role to SecAdmin1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-super-users

NEW QUESTION 95
You create a new Microsoft 365 subscription and assign Microsoft 365 E3 licenses to 100 users. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you enable auditing. You are planning the auditing strategy. Which three activities will be audited by default? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    An administrator creates a new Microsoft SharePoint site collection.
B.    An administrator creates a new mail flow rule.
C.    A user shares a Microsoft SharePoint folder with an external user.
D.    A user delegates permissions to their mailbox.
E.    A user purges messages from their mailbox.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance?redirectSourcePath=%252farticle%252f0d4d0f35-390b-4518-800e-0c7ec95e946c

NEW QUESTION 96
Your company has 5,000 Windows 10 devices. All the devices are protected by using Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). You need to view which Windows Defender ATP alert events have a high severity and occurred during the last seven days. What should you use in Windows Defender ATP?

A.    The threat intelligence API
B.    Automated investigations
C.    Threat analytics
D.    Advanced hunting

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/investigate-alerts-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/automated-investigations-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection

NEW QUESTION 97
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant. The company sells products online and processes credit card information. You need to be notified if a file stored in Microsoft SharePoint Online contains credit card information. The file must be removed automatically from its current location until an administrator can review its contents. What should you use?

A.    a Security & Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policy
B.    a Microsoft Cloud App Security access policy
C.    a Security & Compliance retention policy
D.    a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

NEW QUESTION 98
Your company has five security information and event management (SIEM) appliances. The traffic logs from each appliance are saved to a file share named Logs. You need to analyze the traffic logs. What should you do from Microsoft Cloud App Security?

A.    Click Investigate, and then click Activity log.
B.    Click Control, and then click Policies. Create a file policy.
C.    Click Discover, and then click Create snapshot report.
D.    Click Investigate, and then click Files.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/investigate-an-activity-in-office-365-cas

NEW QUESTION 99
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 Windows 10 devices. You perform a proof of concept (PoC) deployment of Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for 10 test devices. During the onboarding process, you configure Windows Defender ATP-related data to be stored in the United States. You plan to onboard all the devices to Windows Defender ATP. You need to store the Windows Defender ATP data in Europe. What should you first?

A.    Create a workspace.
B.    Onboard a new device.
C.    Delete the workspace.
D.    Offboard the test devices.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 100
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to be notified if users receive email containing a file that has a virus. What should you do?

A.    From the Exchange admin center, create an in-place eDiscovery & hold.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a data governance event.
C.    From the Exchange admin center, create an anti-malware policy.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a safe attachments policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/exchange-online-service-description/anti-spam-and-anti-malware-protection

NEW QUESTION 101
You need to notify the manager of the human resources department when a user in the department shares a file or folder from the department’s Microsoft SharePoint site. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create an alert policy.
B.    From the SharePoint site, create an alert.
C.    From the SharePoint admin center, modify the sharing settings.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts

NEW QUESTION 102
Your company uses Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) and Windows Defender ATP. You need to integrate Windows Defender ATP and Azure ATP. What should you do?

A.    From Azure ATP, configure the notifications and reports.
B.    From Azure ATP, configure the data sources.
C.    From Windows Defender Security Center, configure the Machine management settings.
D.    From Windows Defender Security Center, configure the General settings.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/integrate-wd-atp

NEW QUESTION 103
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. All users are assigned the Enterprise Mobility + Security license. You need to ensure that when users join their device to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), the device is enrolled in Microsoft Intune automatically. What should you configure?

A.    Enrollment restrictions from the Intune admin center.
B.    device enrollment managers from the Intune admin center.
C.    MAM User scope from the Azure Active Directory admin center.
D.    MDM User scope from the Azure Active Directory admin center.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/windows-enroll

NEW QUESTION 104
Your company uses Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) and Microsoft Intune to co-manage devices. Which two actions can be performed only from Intune? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Deploy applications to Windows 10 devices.
B.    Deploy VPN profiles to iOS devices.
C.    Deploy VPN profiles to Windows 10 devices.
D.    Publish applications to Android devices.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/create-vpn-profiles

NEW QUESTION 105
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to ensure that users can manage the configuration settings for all the Windows 10 devices in your organization. What should you configure?

A.    the Enrollment restrictions
B.    the mobile device management (MDM) authority
C.    the Exchange on-premises access settings
D.    the Windows enrollment settings

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/mdm-authority-set

NEW QUESTION 106
You have computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. You plan to delay the installation of new Windows builds so that the IT department can test application compatibility. You need to prevent Windows from being updated for the next 30 days. Which two Group Policy settings should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Select when Quality Updates are received.
B.    Select when Preview Builds and Feature Updates are received.
C.    Turn off auto-restart for updates during active hours.
D.    Manage preview builds.
E.    Automatic updates detection frequency.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://insider.windows.com/en-us/for-business-organization-admin/

NEW QUESTION 107
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You need to provide a user with the ability to sign up for Microsoft Store for Business for contoso.com. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which role should you assign to the user?

A.    Cloud application administrator
B.    Application administrator
C.    Global administrator
D.    Service administrator

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/roles-and-permissions-microsoft-store-for-business

NEW QUESTION 108
You are deploying Microsoft Intune. You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune. When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error. You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You create the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 109
Your company uses on-premises Windows Server File Classification Infrastructure (FCI). Some documents on the on-premises file servers are classified as Confidential. You migrate the files from the on-premises file servers to Microsoft SharePoint Online. You need to ensure that you can implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies for the uploaded file based on the Confidential classification. What should you do first?

A.    From the SharePoint admin center, configure hybrid search.
B.    From the SharePoint admin center, create a managed property.
C.    From the Security & Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DataClassification cmdlet.
D.    From the Security & Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DlpComplianceRule cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-dlp/new-dataclassification?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 110
You are testing a data loss prevention (DLP) policy to protect the sharing of credit card information with external users. During testing, you discover that a user can share credit card information with external users by using email. However, the user is prevented from sharing files that contain credit card information by using Microsoft SharePoint Online. You need to prevent the user from sharing the credit card information by using email and SharePoint. What should you configure?

A.    the locations of the DLP policy
B.    the user overrides of the DLP policy rule
C.    the status of the DLP policy
D.    the conditions of the DLP policy rule

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

NEW QUESTION 111
……


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