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Case Study 1
NEW QUESTION 1
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A.    Partner information
B.    Overview
C.    Payment methods
D.    Invoices

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the environment to meet the authentication requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy.
B.    A Recovery Services vault and a backup policy.
C.    An Azure Key Vault and an access policy.
D.    An Azure Storage account and an access policy.

Answer: BD

Case Study 2
NEW QUESTION 3
You need to move the blueprint files to Azure. What should you do?

A.    Generate a shared access signature (SAS). Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
B.    Use the Azure Import/Export service.
C.    Generate an access key. Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
D.    Use Azure Storage Explorer to copy the files.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
You need to implement a backup solution for App1 after the application is moved. What should you create first?

A.    a recovery plan
B.    an Azure Backup Server
C.    a backup policy
D.    a Recovery Services vault

Answer: D

Case Study 3
NEW QUESTION 5
You have 100 Azure subscriptions. All the subscriptions are associated to the same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You are a global administrator. You plan to create a report that lists all the resources across all the subscriptions. You need to ensure that you can view all the resources in all the subscriptions. What should you do?

A.    From the Azure portal, modify the profile settings of your account.
B.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Add-AzureADAdministrativeUnitMember cmdlet.
C.    From Windows PowerShell, run the New-AzureADUserAppRoleAssignment cmdlet.
D.    From the Azure portal, modify the properties of the Azure AD tenant.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
HotSpot
You plan to create an Azure Storage account in the Azure region of East US 2. You need to create a storage account that meets the following requirements:
– Replicates synchronously
– Remains available if a single data center in the region fails
How should you configure the storage account? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You create an Azure Storage account named contosostorage, and then you create a file share named data. Which UNC path should you include in a script that references files from the data file share? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Case Study 4
NEW QUESTION 8
You have an Azure web app named App1. App1 runs in an Azure App Service plan named Plan1. Plan1 is associated to the Free pricing tier. You discover that App1 stops each day after running continuously for 60 minutes. You need to ensure that App1 can run continuously for the entire day.
Solution: You change the pricing tier of Plan1 to Basic.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours.
Solution: From Azure Monitor, you create a metric on Network In and Network Out.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

Case Study 5
NEW QUESTION 10
You have an Azure Service Bus. You need to implement a Service Bus queue that guarantees first-in-first-out (FIFO) delivery of messages. What should you do?

A.    Set the Lock Duration setting to 10 seconds.
B.    Enable duplicate detection.
C.    Set the Max Size setting of the queue to 5 GB.
D.    Enable partitioning.
E.    Enable sessions.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines. You need to configure an Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group. What should you do?

A.    Enable Floating IP.
B.    Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.
C.    Set Session persistence to Client IP.
D.    Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You develop a serverless application using several Azure Functions. These functions connect to data from within the code. You want to configure tracing for an Azure Function App project. You need to change configuration settings in the hostjson file. Which tool should you use?

A.    Azure Portal
B.    Azure PowerShell
C.    Azure Functions Core Tools (Azure CLI)
D.    Visual Studio

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
A company has a series of mobile games on Azure with an online community. The moderators need to filter offensive text, and additional…. The company wants to implement a solution using Azure Content Moderation. You need to select API or Azure service options for the solution. Which two APIs or Azure service should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Bot Service
B.    Custom Term List API
C.    Language Understanding Intelligence System (LUIS) API
D.    Text Moderation API
E.    Text Analytics API

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 3
You develop software solutions for a media services company. You plan to analyze a collection of video files by using Azure Video Indexer. You need to only generate audio transcripts from the files, as quickly as possible, without incurring extra costs. To which value should you set the Azure Video Indexer Streaming Preset option?

A.    Default
B.    SingleBitrate
C.    NoStreaming
D.    AdaptiveBitrate

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
You are developing a mobile instant messaging app for a company. The mobile app must meet the following requirements:
– Support offline data sync.
– Update the latest messages during normal sync cycles.
You need to implement Offline Data Sync. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Retrieve records from Offline Data Sync on every call to the PullAsync method.
B.    Retrieve records from Offline Data Sync using an Incremental Sync.
C.    Push records to Offline Data Sync using an Incremental Sync.
D.    Return the updatedAt column from the Mobile Service Backend and implement sorting by using the column.
E.    Return the updatedAt column from the Mobile Service Backend and implement sorting by the message ID.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 5
You manage a web application that is hosted in multiple Azure regions. The application uses Azure Append blobs to store audit logs. Each hosted instance of the application maintains its own audit logs. You have a central Append blob that serves as a master record of all audit logs. The master audit log is updated on a schedule to include all local copies from each region. The local copies are then discarded. You need to append each of the local audit logs to the master audit log. Which method should you use?

A.    Start-AzureStorageBlobCopy PowerShell command
B.    Append Block operation of the Azure Storage Services REST API
C.    Copy Blob operation of the Azure Storage Services REST API
D.    AzCopy tool with the /BlobType:Append parameter

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
You develop a solution that uses an Azure SQL Database to store user information for a mobile app. The app stores sensitive information about users. You need to hide sensitive information from developers that query the data for the mobile app. Which three items must you identify when configuring dynamic data masking? (Each correct answer presents a part of fhe solution. Choose three.)

A.    Column
B.    Table
C.    Trigger
D.    Schema
E.    Index

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 7
You are developing an internal website for employees to view sensitive data. The website uses Azure Active Directory (AAD) for authentication. You need to implement multifactor authentication for the website. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    In Azure AD, create a new conditional access policy.
B.    In Azure AD, enable application proxy.
C.    Configure the website to use Azure AD B2C.
D.    In Azure AD conditional access, enable the baseline policy.
E.    Upgrade to Azure AD Premium.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 8
You develop an app that processes data packages that are less than 10 KB. The solution processes and then deletes the data packages. Data must be processed by only one instance and must persist if the app is reset but not after it is processed. You need to select a storage technology for the solution while minimizing costs. Which data storage service should you use?

A.    Azure Table Storage
B.    Azure Queue Storage
C.    Azure Blob Storage
D.    Azure Redis Cache
E.    Azure SQL Database

Answer: C

Case Study 1: Litware Inc.
NEW QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that the SecurityPin security requirements are met.
Solution: Enable Always Encrypted for the SecurityPin column using a certificate based on a trusted certificate authority. Update the Getting Started document with instruction to ensure that the certificate is installed on user machines.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
You need to ensure the upload format issue is resolved. What code should you add at line RU14? (To answer, drag appropriate code fragments to the correct locations. Each code fragment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Case Study 2: Coho Winery
NEW QUESTION 11
You need to meet the LabelMaker application security requirement.
Solution: Create a conditional access policy and assign it to the Azure Kubernetes Service cluster.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
HotSpot
You need to retrieve all order line items sorted alphabetically by the city. How should you complete the code? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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NEW QUESTION 418
Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when ____.

A.    only when there is Multicast solution set up
B.    there is Load Sharing solution set up
C.    only when there is Unicast solution set up
D.    there is High Availability solution set up

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 419
Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

A.    Save Policy
B.    Install Database
C.    Save session
D.    Install Policy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 420
From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

A.    Verify a Security Policy
B.    Open a terminal shell
C.    Add a static route
D.    View Security Management GUI Clients

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 421
Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

A.    Pentagon, star, and combination.
B.    Star, octagon, and combination.
C.    Combined and star.
D.    Meshed, star, and combination.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 422
What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

A.    inform, ask, and block.
B.    block, action, and warn.
C.    action, inform, and ask.
D.    ask, block, and notify.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 423
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.    URL Filtering and Network.
B.    Network and Threat Prevention.
C.    Application Control and URL Filtering.
D.    Network and Application Control.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 424
Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

A.    Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled.
B.    It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually.
C.    It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table.
D.    With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 425
Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the ____ window.

A.    NAT
B.    Firewall
C.    Global Properties
D.    Object Explorer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 426
How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

A.    By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option.
B.    They cannot be seen.
C.    From the SmartView Tracker audit log.
D.    From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 427
Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

A.    Application Control
B.    Threat Emulation
C.    Logging and Status
D.    Monitoring

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 428
Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

A.    1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.
3. Publish and install the policy.
B.    1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.
3. Publish the policy.
C.    1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.
3. Publish and install the policy.
D.    1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.
3. Publish the policy.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 429
True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

A.    False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties.
B.    True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration.
C.    True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server.
D.    False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 430
Consider the Global Properties following settings: The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means what?

A.    UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
B.    All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
C.    No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
D.    All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 431
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? (Choose the best answer.)

A.    By using IPSEC
B.    By using SIC
C.    By using ICA
D.    By using 3DES

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 432
Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

A.    259, 900.
B.    256, 257.
C.    8080, 529.
D.    80, 256.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 433
What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.    Monitoring the status of processes.
B.    Sending and receiving logs.
C.    Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.
D.    Generating and modifying certificates.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 434
……


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NEW QUESTION 46
You plan to use Azure platform tools to detect and analyze food items in smart refrigerators. To provide families with an integrated experience for grocery shopping and cooking, the refrigerators will connect to other smart appliances, such as stoves and microwave ovens, on a LAN. You plan to build an object recognition model by using the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit. The object recognition model will receive input from the connected devices and send results to applications. The training data will be derived from more than 10 TB of images. You will convert the raw images to the sparse format. You need to ensure that a web service endpoint can receive image data and use an object recognition model to return the expected object and the confidence level of the model. The solution must minimize the effort required to generate the client code to access the web service. Which resource should you use?

A.    The edX Data Science Learning Dashboard.
B.    Azure Machine Learning Studio.
C.    Cortana Intelligence Gallery.
D.    The Data Science Virtual Machine.

Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two ways to add an endpoint to a Web service.
– Programmatically
– Through the Azure Machine Learning Web Services portal
Adding an endpoint using the Azure Machine Learning Web Services portal:
1. In Machine Learning Studio, on the left navigation column, click Web Services.
2. At the bottom of the Web service dashboard, click Manage endpoints. The Azure Machine Learning Web Services portal opens to the endpoints page for the Web service.
3. Click New.
4. Type a name and description for the new endpoint.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/create-endpoint

NEW QUESTION 47
You plan to use Azure platform tools to detect and analyze food items in smart refrigerators. To provide families with an integrated experience for grocery shopping and cooking, the refrigerators will connect to other smart appliances, such as stoves and microwave ovens, on a LAN. You plan to build an object recognition model by using the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit. The object recognition model will receive input from the connected devices and send results to applications. The training data will be derived from more than 10 TB of images. You will convert the raw images to the sparse format. You need to deploy a multiple-service solution that was developed already and published by other users in the Microsoft development community. What should you use?

A.    The edX Data Science Learning Dashboard.
B.    The Data Science Virtual Machine.
C.    An Azure Machine Learning experiment.
D.    Cortana Intelligence Gallery.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure AI Gallery enables our growing community of developers and data scientists to share their analytics solutions.
https://gallery.azure.ai/

NEW QUESTION 48
You process some data by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You have an intermediate dataset. The dataset has a column that contains date values stored in a format of MM/DD/YYYY. You need to split the column into three separate columns by year, month, and day. Which module should you use?

A.    Edit Metadata
B.    Normalize Data
C.    Clean Missing Data
D.    Import Data
E.    Execute Python Script
F.    Clip Values
G.    Tune Model Hyperparameters
H.    Select Columns in Dataset

Answer: E
Explanation:
You can use Python code to create a new column.
Incorrect:
Not F: The Clip Values module in Azure Machine Learning Studio, is used to identify and optionally replace data values that are above or below a specified threshold.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/service/how-to-transform-data

NEW QUESTION 49
You need to transform the columns in a dataset. The resulting data must be mean centered and have a variance of 1. The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?

A.    Execute Python Script
B.    Import Data
C.    Edit Metadata
D.    Select Columns in Dataset
E.    Clean Missing Data
F.    Tune Model Hyperparameters
G.    Clip Values
H.    Normalize Data

Answer: H

NEW QUESTION 50
You need to change a column name to a friendly name. The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?

A.    Execute Python Script
B.    Import Data
C.    Edit Metadata
D.    Select Columns in Dataset
E.    Clean Missing Data
F.    Tune Model Hyperparameters
G.    Clip Values
H.    Normalize Data

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/select-columns-in-dataset

NEW QUESTION 51
You have a dataset that contains a column named Column1. Some of the values in Column1 are empty. You need to replace the empty values by using probabilistic Principal Component Analysis (PCA). The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?

A.    Execute Python Script
B.    Import Data
C.    Edit Metadata
D.    Select Columns in Dataset
E.    Clean Missing Data
F.    Tune Model Hyperparameters
G.    Clip Values
H.    Normalize Data

Answer: E
Explanation:
You can use the Clean Missing Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio, to remove, replace, or infer missing values. This module supports multiple type of operations for “cleaning” missing values, including:
– Replacing missing values with a placeholder, mean, or other value
– Completely removing rows and columns that have missing values
– Inferring values based on statistical methods
You can choose to replace using Probabilistic PCA: Replaces the missing values by using a linear model that analyzes the correlations between the columns and estimates a low-dimensional approximation of the data, from which the full data is reconstructed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data

NEW QUESTION 52
You plan to create a predictive analytics solution for credit risk assessment and fraud prediction in Azure Machine Learning. The Machine Learning workspace for the solution will be shared with other users in your organization. You will add assets to projects and conduct experiments in the workspace. The experiments will be used for training models that will be published to provide scoring from web services. The experiment for fraud prediction will use Machine Learning modules and APIs to train the models and will predict probabilities in an Apache Hadoop ecosystem. You plan to share the Machine Learning workspace with the other users. You are evaluating whether to assign the User role or the Owner role to several of the users. Which three actions can be performed by the users who are assigned the User role? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create, open, modify, and delete datasets.
B.    Create, open, modify, and delete experiments.
C.    Invite users to the workspace.
D.    Delete users from the workspace.
E.    Create, open, modify, and delete web services.
F.    Access notebooks.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Once a Machine Learning workspace is created, you can invite users to your workspace and share access to your workspace and all of its experiments. We support two roles of users:
* User – A workspace user can create, open, modify and delete datasets, experiments and web services in the workspace.
* Owner – An owner can invite, remove, and list users with access to the workspace, in addition to what a user can do. He/she also have access to Notebooks.
https://github.com/anthonychu/azure-content/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/machine-learning-create-workspace.md

NEW QUESTION 53
You plan to create a predictive analytics solution for credit risk assessment and fraud prediction in Azure Machine Learning. The Machine Learning workspace for the solution will be shared with other users in your organization. You will add assets to projects and conduct experiments in the workspace. The experiments will be used for training models that will be published to provide scoring from web services. The experiment for fraud prediction will use Machine Learning modules and APIs to train the models and will predict probabilities in an Apache Hadoop ecosystem. The users will use different data sources that follow a standard format. The users will receive results in a standard format by using the fraud prediction web service. The results will be saved to a location specified by the users. You need to provide the users with the ability to get results for different risk tolerances without affecting the calculation of the model. Which three modules should be configured to use the Web Service Parameters? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Evaluate Model
B.    Import Data
C.    Select Columns in Dataset
D.    Export Data
E.    Time Series Anomaly Detection

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
A: from scenario: the experiment for fraud prediction will use Machine Learning modules and APIs to train the models and will predict probabilities in an Apache Hadoop ecosystem.
B and D: an Azure Machine Learning web service is created by publishing an experiment that contains modules with configurable parameters. In some cases, you may want to change the module behavior while the web service is running. Web Service Parameters allow you to do this task.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/web-service-parameters

NEW QUESTION 54
You need to identify which columns are more predictive by using a statistical method. Which module should you use?

A.    Filter Based Feature Selection
B.    Principal Component Analysis
C.    Group Data into Bins
D.    Tune Model Hyperparameters

Answer: A
Explanation:
In machine learning and statistics, feature selection is the process of selecting a subset of relevant, useful features to use in building an analytical model. Feature selection helps narrow the field of data to the most valuable inputs. Narrowing the field of data helps reduce noise and improve training performance. Feature selection is an important tool in machine learning. Machine Learning Studio provides multiple methods for performing feature selection. Choose a feature selection method based on the type of data that you have, and the requirements of the statistical technique that’s applied.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/feature-selection-modules

NEW QUESTION 55
You are building a classification experiment in Azure Machine Learning. You need to ensure that you can use the Evaluate Model module in the experiment. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Connect the input of the Score Model modules to the output of the Evaluate Model module.
B.    Connect the input of the Score Model modules to the output of the Train Model modules and the output Split Data modules.
C.    Connect the output of the Score Model modules to the input of the Evaluate Model module.
D.    Connect the output of the Score Model modules to the input of the Train Model modules and the input of the Split Data modules.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
– Use the training data
To evaluate a model, you must connect a dataset that contains a set of input columns and scores. If no other data is available, you can use your original dataset.
1. Connect the Scored dataset output of the Score Model to the input of Evaluate Model.
2. Click Evaluate Model module, and select Run selected to generate the evaluation scores.
– Use the testing data
A common scenario in machine learning is to separate your original data set into training and testing datasets, using the Split module, or the Partition and Sample module.
1. Connect the Scored dataset output of the Score Model to the input of Evaluate Model.
2. Connect the output of the Split Data module that contains the testing data to the right-hand input of Evaluate Model.
3. Click Evaluate Model module, and select Run selected to generate the evaluation scores.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/evaluate-model

NEW QUESTION 56
You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment that uses four different logistic regression algorithms. You are evaluating the algorithms based on the data in the following table:
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Which model produces predictions that are the closest to the actual outcomes?

A.    Model 1
B.    Model 2
C.    Model 3
D.    Model 4

Answer: C
Explanation:
– Mean absolute error (MAE) measures how close the predictions are to the actual outcomes; thus, a lower score is better.
– Relative absolute error (RAE) is the relative absolute difference between expected and actual values; relative because the mean difference is divided by the arithmetic mean.
– Root mean squared error (RMSE) creates a single value that summarizes the error in the model. By squaring the difference, the metric disregards the difference between over-prediction and under-prediction.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/evaluate-model

NEW QUESTION 57
The manager of a call center reports that staffing the center is difficult because the number of calls is unpredictable. You have historical data that contains information about the calls. You need to build an Azure Machine Learning experiment to predict the number of total calls each hour. Which model should you use?

A.    Multiclass Logistic Regression
B.    Boosted Decision Tree Regression
C.    Decision Forest Regression
D.    Poisson Regression

Answer: D
Explanation:
Poisson regression is intended for use in regression models that are used to predict numeric values, typically counts. Therefore, you should use this module to create your regression model only if the values you are trying to predict fit the following conditions:
– The response variable has a Poisson distribution.
– Counts cannot be negative. The method will fail outright if you attempt to use it with negative labels.
– A Poisson distribution is a discrete distribution; therefore, it is not meaningful to use this method with non- whole numbers.
Incorrect:
Not A: Logistic regression is a well-known method in statistics that is used to predict the probability of an outcome, and is particularly popular for classification tasks. The algorithm predicts the probability of occurrence of an event by fitting data to a logistic function.
Not B: Boosting means that each tree is dependent on prior trees. The algorithm learns by fitting the residual of the trees that preceded it. Thus, boosting in a decision tree ensemble tends to improve accuracy with some small risk of less coverage.
Not C: Decision trees are non-parametric models that perform a sequence of simple tests for each instance, traversing a binary tree data structure until a leaf node (decision) is reached.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/poisson-regression

NEW QUESTION 58
You have an Apache Spark cluster in Azure HDInsight. The cluster includes 200 TB in five Apache Hive tables that have multiple foreign key relationships. You have an Azure Machine Learning model that was built by using SPARK Accelerated Failure Time (AFT) Survival Regression Model (spark.survreg). You need to prepare the Hive data into a single table as input for the Machine Learning model. The Hive data must be prepared in the least amount of time possible. What should you use to prepare the data?

A.    A Hive user-defined function (UDF)
B.    Spark SQL
C.    The GPU
D.    Java Mapreduce jobs

Answer: A
Explanation:
Create features for data in an HDInsight Hadoop cluster using Hive queries. Feature engineering attempts to increase the predictive power of learning algorithms by creating features from raw data that facilitate the learning process. You can run HiveQL queries from Azure ML, and access data processed in Hive and stored in blob storage, by using the Import Data module.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-machine-learning-overview#azure-machine-learning-and-hive

NEW QUESTION 59
You are building an Azure Machine Learning workflow by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit. You need to ensure that the stochastic gradient descent (SGD) configuration maximizes the samples per second and supports parallel modeling that is managed by a parameter server. Which SGD algorithm should you use?

A.    DataParallelASGD
B.    DataParallelSGD
C.    BlockMomentumSGD
D.    ModelAveragingSGD

Answer: A
Explanation:
Parameter server is a widely used framework in distributed machine learning. The most important benefit it brings is the asynchronous parallel training with many workers… you can use Data-Parallel ASGD.
Incorrect:
Not D: Model-Averaging SGD generally converges more slowly and to a worse optimum, compared to 1-bit SGD and Block-Momentum SGD, so it is no longer recommended.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cognitive-toolkit/multiple-gpus-and-machines

NEW QUESTION 60
You plan to use Azure Machine Learning to develop a predictive model. You plan to include an Execute Python Script module. What capability does the module provide?

A.    importing Python modules from a ZIP file for execution in a Machine Learning experiment
B.    performing interactive debugging of a Python script
C.    saving the results of a Python script run in a Machine Learning environment to a local file
D.    returning multiple data frames

Answer: A
Explanation:
A common use-case for many data scientists is to incorporate existing Python scripts into Azure ML experiments. Instead of requiring that all code be concatenated and pasted into a single script box, the Execute Python Script module accepts a zip file that contains Python modules at the third input port. The file is unzipped by the execution framework at runtime and the contents are added to the library path of the Python interpreter.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/execute-python-scripts

NEW QUESTION 61
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NEW QUESTION 131
You have a Power BI model for sales data. You create a measure to calculate the year-to-date sales. You need to compare the year-to-date sales with the previous year for the same time period. Which DAX function should you use?

A.    LASTDATE
B.    TOTALYTD
C.    SAMEPERIODLASTYEAR
D.    PREVIOUSYEAR

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 132
You need to create a custom visualization for Power BI. What should you install first?

A.    jQuery
B.    Node.js
C.    Microsoft Azure PowerShell
D.    Microsoft.NET

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-custom-visuals-getting-started-with-developer-tools

NEW QUESTION 133
You have a Power BI report that is configured to use row-level security (RLS). You have the following roles:
– A manager role that limits managers to see only the sales data from the stores they manage
– A region role that limits users to see only the data from their respective region
You plan to use Power BI Embedded to embed the report into an application. The application will authenticate the users. You need to ensure that RLS is enforced when accessing the embedded report. What should you do?

A.    From dev.powerbi.com/apps, register the new application and enable the Read All Reports API access.
B.    In the access token for the application, include the user name and the role name.
C.    From dev.powerbi.com/apps, register the new application and enable the Read All Groups API access.
D.    In the access token for the application, include the report URL and the Microsoft Azure Active Directory domain name.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 134
Your company has a security policy stating that proprietary data must not be transferred over the Internet. During a security audit, auditors discover that executives use the Power BI service for reporting. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the company adheres to the security policy. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft SQL Server column encryption
B.    Microsoft Azure ExpressRoute
C.    A site-to-site VPN to Microsoft Azure
D.    The on-premises gateway for Power BI

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-admin-power-bi-expressroute

NEW QUESTION 135
You have a Power BI Desktop project that uses DirectQuery to access an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server database. From Power BI Desktop, you can query the database. When you publish the Power BI Desktop project to the Power BI service, the visualizations cannot display the data. What should you do to resolve the issue?

A.    Locate the published dataset for the project in the Power BI service and configure the data source credentials.
B.    Install the on-premises data gateway (personal mode) and republish the project.
C.    Install the on-premises data gateway and configure a data source.
D.    Configure a Microsoft Azure ExpressRoute connection between the on-premises network and the Power BI service.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-gateway-sql-tutorial

NEW QUESTION 136
You plan to create a dashboard in the Power BI service that retrieves data from a Microsoft SQL Server database. The dashboard will be shared between the users in your organization. You need to ensure that the users will see the current data when they view the dashboard. How should you configure the connection to the data source?

A.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway.
Connect to the data by using the Import Data Connectivity mode.
B.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway.
Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.
C.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode).
Connect to the data by using the Import Data Connectivity mode.
D.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode).
Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 137
You plan to use Power BI Desktop optimized for Power BI Report Server to create a report. The report will be published to Power BI Report Server. You need to ensure that all the visualization in the report can be consumed by users. Which three types of visualizations should you include in the report? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    bubble maps
B.    custom visuals
C.    R visuals
D.    breadcrumbs
E.    funnel charts

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/report-server/install-powerbi-desktop

NEW QUESTION 138
You plan to create a dashboard in the Power BI service that will retrieve data from a tabular database in Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The dashboard will be shared between the users in your organization. The Analysis Services database has a DirectQuery connection to the SQL Server database that contains the source data. You need to ensure that the users will see the current data when they view the dashboard. How should you configure the connection to the data source?

A.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway.
Connect to the data by using the Connect live option.
B.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway.
Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.
C.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode).
Connect to the data by using the Connect live option.
D.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode).
Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 139
You plan to use Power BI Desktop to create a report. The report will consume data from an on-premises tabular database named SalesDB in Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The report will be published to the Power BI service. You need to ensure that the report published to the Power BI service will access the current data in SalesDB. What should you do?

A.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the Connect live option.
B.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the Import Data Connectivity mode.
C.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode) and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.
D.    Deploy an on-premises data gateway and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 140
You plan to join a fact table named ActivityLog to a Date dimension named ActivityDate. The date value in ActivityLog is a datetime column named ActivityStart. The date value in ActivityDate is a number column named DateID. DateID is in the YYYY/MM/DD format. What should you do in the model before you create the relationship?

A.    Change the Data Type of ActivityStart to Date.
B.    Create a measure in ActivityLog that uses the FORMAT DAX function.
C.    Change the Data Type of DateID to Date.
D.    Create a calculated column in ActivityLog that uses the FORMAT DAX function.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 141
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NEW QUESTION 560
Which two options describe the advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks? (Choose two.)

A.    Inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion.
B.    Inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation.
C.    Inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection.
D.    Inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol.
E.    Ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical infrastructure.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 561
What two options are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.)

A.    Energy Efficiency
B.    Lower Latency
C.    Mass Connectivity
D.    Programmability
E.    Higher data rates

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 562
Which two options are IoT use cases that require the low-latency and high reliability that 5G networks provide? (Choose two.)

A.    Sports and Fitness
B.    Smart Home
C.    Automotive
D.    Smart Cities
E.    Industrial Automation
F.    Health and wellness

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 563
As a part of a network design, you should tighten security to prevent man-in-the-middle. Which two security options ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to know IP-to-MAC address mapping? (Choose two.)

A.    DHCP snooping
B.    ARP spoofing
C.    ARP rate limiting
D.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
E.    Port security

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 564
Which two options are benefits of using Topology Independent Loop-Free Alternate in WAN design? (Choose two.)

A.    It provides backup convergence for all topologies by avoiding the post-convergence path.
B.    It maximizes the network utilization by load-sharing across low bandwidth and edge links while IGP convergence is in progress.
C.    No additional protocols are required in the MPLS network because it uses LDP labels to signal the backup path.
D.    Although it requires enabling segment routing, SR does not have to be activated as the preferred forwarding method.
E.    It can provide backup paths for IPv4, IPv6 and LDP traffic.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 565
Which two options are potential problems with route aggregation? (Choose two.)

A.    Maintaining host IP addresses during migrations
B.    Route flapping
C.    Suboptimal routing
D.    Topology hiding
E.    Asymmetric routing
F.    Prefix hijacking

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 566
In an OSPF network with 20 routers connected together with Ethernet cabling , which topology typically takes the longest to converge?

A.    Full mesh
B.    Ring
C.    Squared
D.    Triangulated
E.    Partial mesh

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 567
A DMVPN network is being deployed for 10 branch sites to connect to the central headquarters over the Internet. Each branch site connects to the internet via a 1.5 Mb/s ADSL line, and the headquarters connects to the Internet over a 100Mb/s circuit limited to 20 Mb/s by the service provider. Which QoS mechanism if any, do you recommend at the headquarters location?

A.    Rate-limiting the 100 Mb/s circuit to 20 Mb/s.
B.    Applying hierarchical QoS with parent policy for the overall circuit and child policy for the spokes.
C.    Traffic shaping the 100 Mb/s circuit to 20 Mb/s.
D.    QoS is not required in this instance due to maximum traffic being received by the branches being 15 Mb/s.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 568
Which three network management requirements are common practices in network design? (Choose three.)

A.    Collect RMON poll information for future regression analysis.
B.    Ensure that all network devices have their clocks synchronized.
C.    Look at average counters instead of instantaneous counters for inconsistent and bursty KPIs, such as CPU utilization and interface utilization.
D.    Collect SNMP poll information for future regression analysis.
E.    Validate data plane health, application and services availability with synthetic traffic.
F.    Capture both ingress and egress flow-based packets. While avoiding duplications of flows.

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 569
A customer requests that you determine how much of their remote branch traffic into a central data center is related to a call manager that resides in the data center. Which solution do you recommend?

A.    Enable NetFLow on branch routers.
B.    Enable netFlow on central data center routers.
C.    Perform SNMP polling of central data center routers.
D.    Perform SNMP polling of branch routers.
E.    Create an ACL on the local call manager switch with logging enabled.
F.    Span traffic from the switch port on the call manager to a data analyzer.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 570
As network designer, which option is your main concern with regards to virtualizing multiple network zones into a single hardware device?

A.    Fate sharing
B.    CPU resource allocation
C.    Congestion control
D.    Security
E.    Bandwidth allocation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 571
You are reviewing a new data center design for a customer. They chose to leverage a tunnel-based overlay technology for quick deployment and multitenant security. Which design concern can affect the availability across the data center?

A.    Nonoverlapping IP address space between the overlay networks.
B.    MTU size on the underlay links.
C.    Review of comman paths on the underlay links.
D.    Paper placement of STP root bridge in overlay networks.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 572
Which three items do you recommend for control plane hardening of an infrastructure device? (Choose three.)

A.    To enable unused services
B.    Warning banners
C.    Routing protocol authentication
D.    Control Plane Policing
E.    Redundant AAA servers
F.    SNMPv3

Answer: CDF

NEW QUESTION 573
Which native mechanism does OSPF use to prevent loops in MPLS VPNs?

A.    CE devices that run OSPF set the DN bit toward the PE router.
B.    PE devices that run OSPF clear the DN bit toward the CE router.
C.    CE devices that run OSPF clear the DN bit toward the PE router.
D.    Creation of PE to PE OSPF sham link across the MPLS-created super backbone.
E.    PE routers verify OSPF domain IDs used by CE OSPF processes.
F.    PE devices that run OSPF set the DN bit toward the CE router.

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 574
Your client is considering acquiring a new IPv6 address block so that all Ethernet interfaces on the network receive addresses based on their burned-in hardware addresses, with support for 600 VLANs. Which action do you recommend?

A.    Acquire a new /60 IPv6 network and subnet it into /70 networks, one per VLAN.
B.    Acquire a new /58 IPv6 network and subnet it into /64 networks, one per VLAN.
C.    Acquire a new /60 Ipv6 network and subnet it into /68 networks, one per VLAN.
D.    Acquire a new/54 IPv6 network and subnet it into /64 networks , one per VLAN.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 575
An enterprise network has two core routers that connect to 200 distribution routers and uses full-mesh iBGP peering between these routers as its routing method. The distribution routers are experiencing high CPU utilization due to the BGP process. Which design solution is the most effective?

A.    Increase the memory on the distribution routers.
B.    Increase the memory on the core routers.
C.    Implement route reflectors on the two core routers.
D.    Increase bandwidth between the core routers.
E.    Implement eBGP between the core and distribution routers.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 576
A healthcare customer requested that health statistics from their infrastructure devices are to be sent over their service provider MPLS network. Which protocol must be enabled?

A.    SNMPv3
B.    Syslog TLS
C.    syslog
D.    SNMPv2
E.    SSH

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 577
Which two application requirements are mandatory for traffic to receive proper treatment when placed in the priority queue? (Choose two.)

A.    WRED drop treatment
B.    Small transactions (HTTP ?like behavior)
C.    Tolerance to packet loss
D.    Intolerance to jitter
E.    TCP based application

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 578
Which two options must be part of your network design to support dynamic mutual redistribution between multiple OSPFv2 and IS-IS boundaries, to avoid suboptimal routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Matching OSPF external routes
B.    Route aggregation
C.    Route tagging
D.    Route filtering
E.    Disabling IS-IS wide metrics

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 579
Which two statements about AToM are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It encapsulates Layer 2 frames at the egress PE.
B.    When using AToM, the IP precedence filed is not copied to the MPLS packet.
C.    AToM supports connecting different L2 technologies using interworking option.
D.    The loopback address of the PE router must be either /24 or /32.
E.    It provides support for L2VPN features on ATM interfaces.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 580
Which two functions are performed at the distribution layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.).

A.    Fault isolation
B.    QoS classification and marking boundary
C.    Fast transport
D.    Reliability
E.    Load balancing

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 581
……


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NEW QUESTION 151
Which description of an edge-core-edge SAN topology is true?

A.    Core switches connect to servers.
B.    Edge switches connect to storage devices and servers.
C.    Core switches connect to storage devices and servers.
D.    Edge switches connect to each other via ISLs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 152
During a presentation about Fiber Channel logins when using cisco fabric interconnect switches in switch mode you discuss FLOGI and PLOGI process. Your customer ask you to define the PLOGI process, which response do you provide?

A.    It is a process where two N_ports discover their mutual capabilities.
B.    It is a process used to establish a session between two N_ports.
C.    It is a process where N_ports obtains FCID.
D.    Its process where an N_Port discovers the characteristic associated with a fabric.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 153
Which data center virtualization option allows each partition to specify a different set of admisntrators and maintains its all own unique configuration and set of running software process?

A.    VRF
B.    VDC
C.    100v VEM
D.    vPC

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 154
What is required when configuring the second fabric interconnect in a cluster configuration?

A.    The IP address of the default gateway must be on the same subnet as the peer fabric interconnect.
B.    The system name of the second fabric interconnect must be different from the system name of the first fabric interconnect.
C.    The IP address of the management port must be in the same subnet as the peer fabric interconnect.
D.    The first and the second fabric interconnects must be able to reach the DNS.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 155
You must connect two cisco MDS 9700 Multilayer Fabric Switches over a long-distance dark fiber connection. Which action do you take to ensure that the link between the sites is used effectively?

A.    Ensure that frames are marked with Co’s 3 when using policy maps.
B.    Ensure that each switch has multiple connections to the table.
C.    Shut down unused ports on the fabric switches and reallocate extended BB_credits to the connected port.
D.    Adjust the QoS settings on the fabric switches to prioritize Fiber Channel traffic over data traffic.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 156
Which three statements accurately describe end host mode on cisco UCS Fabric interconnect? (Choose three.)

A.    The Fabric interconnect must be rebooted to enable end host mode.
B.    Network to server unicast traffic is forward to the server only if the traffic arrived on pinned up link mode.
C.    RPF and Deja-Vue checks apply to multicast traffic.
D.    The uplink port are placed in rapid PVST+ edge trunk state.
E.    Mac address learning occurs only on the server ports.
F.    The vtp is enabled on fabric interconnect.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 157
Refer to the exhibit:

Your client has an existing San network includes two ISL link between two cisco MDS Core switches a client ask you design a feature the load balance the iScSI exchanges coming from the initiator over the two ISL link the design must be capable for over coming failures, which design is required?

A.    ECMP
B.    FSPF supports the load balancing without the need of any additional features
C.    Fabric Path
D.    OXID

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 158
Which two components are contained within a device package that is installed on a cisco APIC? (Choose two.))

A.    A device SDK
B.    A device driver
C.    A device Specification
D.    Device script
E.    Device management software

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 159
Your company plans to build a new data center. Which two technologies can you use for the DCI to provide layer 2 endpoint mobility? (Choose two.)

A.    ADSL
B.    VPLS
C.    DSL
D.    DARK FIBER
E.    L3 VPN

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 160
Why should you implement an adapter placement polices to assign vnics or vHBas to vCons?

A.    To function service profile templates, require a specific vHBA placement for boot from SAN.
B.    Force the vHBas and the vNICs to appear in specific order in the operating system.
C.    To function vHBA updating templates require a specific VHBA placement for BOOT from SAN.
D.    To function, the FCoe storage port require a specific vHBA placement for boot from SAN.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 161
……


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NEW QUESTION 362
When you enable IP source Guard on private VLAN ports, which additional action must you take for IP Source Guard to be effective?

A.    Enable DHCP snooping on the isolated VLAN.
B.    Enable BPDU guard on the isolated VLAN.
C.    Enable BPDU guard on the primary VLAN.
D.    Enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 363
A network engineer wants to add new view to an IOS device configured with RBAC. Which privilege is required for that task?

A.    Level 16
B.    Level 15
C.    root view
D.    admin view

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 364
After a session has been secured with MACsec, which two types of traffic can be sent and received unencrypted? (Choose two.)

A.    EAPOL-Start
B.    DHCP offer
C.    Cisco Discovery Protocol
D.    DHCP discover
E.    EAPOL-Logoff

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 365
Which two main functions for application inspection on ASA are true? (Choose two.)

A.    When services use dynamically assigned ports, the application inspection identifies dynamic port and permits data on these ports.
B.    When services embed IP addresses in the packet, the application inspection translates embedded addresses and updates the checksum.
C.    When services are operating on nonstandard ports, the application inspection identifies the nonstandard port and allows the service to run normally.
D.    When services need IP options to function, the application inspection keeps IP options during the packet transition through the appliance.
E.    When services use load balancing, the application inspection ensures that connections are load blanaced across the servers equally.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 366
An engineer suspects that client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time due to a man in middle attack. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack?

A.    Internet Key Exchange
B.    Link Aggregation
C.    Reverse ARP
D.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
E.    private VLANs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 367
Which option is a consequence when an engineer changes the snmp server local engineID in router?

A.    The SNMP configuration that was created previously is invalid.
B.    The users that were created previously are invalid.
C.    The community that was created previously is invalid.
D.    The groups that were created previously are invalid.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 368
HTTPS server is configured on a router for management. Which command will change the router’s listening port from 433 to 444?

A.    ip https secure-port 444
B.    ip http secure-server 444
C.    ip http server-secure-port 444
D.    ip http secure-port 444

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 369
A security engineer is troubleshooting traffic across a Cisco ASA firewall using a packet tracer. When configuring the packet tracer, which option must be used first?

A.    interface
B.    protocol
C.    source
D.    destination

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 370
Which two statements about the utilization of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses in the Cisco ASA 9.x firewall access list configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Mixed IPv4 and IPv6 addresses cannot be used in the same access list entry.
B.    Mixed IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be used in the same access list entry.
C.    Mixed IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be used in the same access list for network object group.
D.    Mixed IPv4 and IPv6 addresses cannot be used in the same access list.
E.    Mixed IPv4 and IPv6 addresses cannot be used in the same access list for network object group.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 371
A user is having trouble connecting to websites on the Internet. The network engineer proposes configuring a packet capture that captures only the HTTP response traffic on the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance between the user’s workstation and Internet. If the user’s workstation IP address is 10.0.0.101, which ACE is needed to achieve this capture?

A.    access-list capture permit tcp host 10.0.0.101 eq 80 any
B.    access-list capture permit tcp host 10.0.0.101 any eq 80
C.    access-list capture permit tcp any eq 80 host 10.0.0.101
D.    access-list capture permit tcp any host 10.0.0.101 eq 80

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 372
Which two mandatory policies are needed to support a regular IPsec VPN in a Cisco Security Manager environment? (Choose two.)

A.    GRE modes
B.    IKE proposal
C.    group encryption
D.    server load balance

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 373
Which option is a Cisco best practice when configuring traffic storm control?

A.    Configure 100 percent level to suppress all traffic.
B.    Configure on the port channel interface of an EtherChannel.
C.    Configure traffic storm control on ports that are members of an EtherChannel.
D.    Configure additional capacity as port speed increase.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 374
Which statement about Cisco ASA botnet filtering is true?

A.    BTF takes the MD5 value and compares it against the dynamic database.
B.    BTF checks if the domain name in a DNS reply matches a name in the BTF database.
C.    BTF can rate-limit traffic to known botnet addresses.
D.    BTF redirects DNS queries to a BTF server for further analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 375
Which threat level is the default used in the Botnet Traffic Filter?

A.    high
B.    moderate to very-high
C.    high to very-high
D.    very-high

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 376
An engineer has successfully captured data on an ASA (ip address 10.10.10.1) and wants to download the file to analyze offline. The filename is capin. Which option must the engineer enter to accomplish this task?

A.    https://10.10.10.1/admin/capture/capin
B.    http://10.10.10.1/admin/capture/capin/pcap
C.    https://10.10.10.1/admin/capture/capin/pcap
D.    http://10.10.10.1/admin/capture/capin

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 377
An engineer has downloaded the database files for botnet traffic filtering on an ASA. Where are these database files stored?

A.    flash memory
B.    SSD drive
C.    ROMMON
D.    running memory

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 378
Which benefit of using centralized management to manage a Cisco IronPort ESA is true?

A.    It reduces licensing cost.
B.    It requires no initial setup.
C.    It requires a light client on managed devices.
D.    It reduces administration time.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 379
A company is concerned with valid time sources and has asked for NTP authentication to be configured. Multiple NTP sources are on the network. Which configuration is required on the client device to authenticate and synchronize with an NTP source?

A.    trusted key
B.    stratum hash
C.    SSL
D.    certificate preshared key

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 380
Which statement about the behavior of the Cisco ASA firewall is true?

A.    The Cisco ASA is not seen as a router hop to connect devices in routed mode.
B.    All Cisco ASA interfaces are on different subnets in transparent mode.
C.    The Cisco ASA clears the running configuration when changing firewall modes.
D.    The Cisco ASA blocks ARP inspection packets in transparent mode.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 381
An engineering team is working diligently to achieve the fastest possible throughput on a Cisco ASA deployment within the data center without sacrificing high availability or flexibility. Which type of architecture accomplishes this goal?

A.    multiple mode, transparent contexts
B.    single mode, transparent contexts
C.    multiple mode, routed contexts
D.    single mode, routed contexts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 382
Which action can be taken as a preventive measure against VLAN hopping attacks?

A.    Configure an uplink to another switch as access port.
B.    Set an unused VLAN as native VLAN on a trunk port.
C.    Limit number of MAC addresses on a trunk port.
D.    Configure port security on all switch ports.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 383
An engineer is asked to configure SNMP Version 3 with authentication and encryption of each SNMP packet. Which SNMP V3 mode must be configured to meet that requirement?

A.    priv
B.    auth
C.    pub
D.    encr

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 384
Which characteristic of community ports in a PVLAN is true?

A.    They can communicate with isolated ports.
B.    They cannot communicate with other community ports in the same community.
C.    They can communicate with promiscuous ports.
D.    They are separated at Layer 3 from all other ports.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 385
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NEW QUESTION 76
A penetration tester is performing ARP spoofing against a switch. Which of the following should the penetration tester spoof to get the MOST information?

A.    MAC address of the client.
B.    MAC address of the domain controller.
C.    MAC address of the web server.
D.    MAC address of the gateway.

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NEW QUESTION 77
A penetration tester observes that several high numbered ports are listening on a public web server. However, the system owner says the application only uses port 443. Which of the following would be BEST to recommend?

A.    Transition the application to another port.
B.    Filter port 443 to specific IP addresses.
C.    Implement a web application firewall.
D.    Disable unneeded services.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 78
A financial institution is asking a penetration tester to determine if collusion capabilities to produce wire fraud are present. Which of the following threat actors should the penetration tester portray during the assessment?

A.    Insider threat
B.    Nation state
C.    Script kiddie
D.    Cybercrime organization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 79
A penetration tester was able to enter an SQL injection command into a text box and gain access to the information store on the database. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation that would mitigate the vulnerability?

A.    Randomize the credentials used to log in.
B.    Install host-based intrusion detection.
C.    Implement input normalization.
D.    Perform system hardening.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 80
Which of the following properties of the penetration testing engagement agreement will have the largest impact on observing and testing production systems at their highest loads?

A.    Creating a scope of the critical production systems.
B.    Setting a schedule of testing access times.
C.    Establishing a white-box testing engagement.
D.    Having management sign-off on intrusive testing.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 81
A company requested a penetration tester review the security of an in-house-developed Android application. The penetration tester received an APK file to support the assessment. The penetration tester wants to run SAST on the APK file. Which of the following preparatory steps must the penetration tester do FIRST? (Choose two.)

A.    Convert to JAR
B.    Decompile
C.    Cross-compile the application
D.    Convert JAR files to DEX
E.    Re-sign the APK
F.    Attach to ADB

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 82
Consider the following PowerShell command:
……
Which of the following BEST describes the actions performed this command?

A.    Set the execution policy
B.    Execute a remote script
C.    Run an encoded command
D.    Instantiate an object

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 83
Which of the following situations would cause a penetration tester to communicate with a system owner/client during the course of a test? (Choose two.)

A.    The tester discovers personally identifiable data on the system.
B.    The system shows evidence of prior unauthorized compromise.
C.    The system shows a lack of hardening throughout.
D.    The system becomes unavailable following an attempted exploit.
E.    The tester discovers a finding on an out-of-scope system.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 84
A penetration tester identifies the following findings during an external vulnerability scan:
passleader-pt0-001-dumps-841_thumb[3]
Which of the following attack strategies should be prioritized from the scan results above?

A.    Obsolete software may contain exploitable components.
B.    Weak password management practices may be employed.
C.    Cryptographically weak protocols may be intercepted.
D.    Web server configurations may reveal sensitive information.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 85
……


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NEW QUESTION 100
Your company plans to release a new computer model that uses an NVM Express (NVMe) host controller interface. You have a USB key that is used to start Windows Pre installation Environment (Windows PE). You need to ensure that when you start the new computers from the USB key, the drivers of the NVMe host controller are available. Which command should you run?

A.    dism.exe
B.    oscdimg.exe
C.    copype.cmd
D.    bcdboot.exe

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101
You plan to preinstall Microsoft Office 2016 on several computers that will be sold to your customers. You need to pin Office tiles to the Windows 10 Start menu. What should you do?

A.    Create a shortcut for each Office application.
Copy the shortcuts to C:\Users\Default\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\Wwindows\StartMenu.
B.    Create a shortcut for each Office application.
Copy the shortcuts to C\ProgramData\Microsoft\Windows\StartMenu\.
C.    Create a Layout Modification.xml file in C:\Users\Default\AppData\Local\Microsoft\Windows\Shell\.
Add the Append Office Suite and Append Office Suite Choice tags to the file.
D.    Create a Configuration.xml file in C:\Users\Default\AppData\Locar\Microsoft\Windows\Shell\.
Add the Append Office Suite and Append Office Suite Choice tags to the file.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 102
You have a WIM file named Image1.wim. Image1.wim contains an image of Windows 10. You obtain the installation media for Microsoft Office 2016. You need to install Office 2016 in the image in the least amount of time possible. What should you do?

A.    Deploy the image to a computer.
Run setup.exe.
Capture an image of the computer.
B.    Deploy the image to a computer.
Run dism.exe and specify the /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage parameter.
Capture an image of the computer.
C.    Mount the image offline.
Run dism.exc and specify the /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage parameter.
D.    Mount the image.
Run setup.exe.
Unmount the image.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 103
You have a WIM file in a shared folder. The WIM file contains an image of Windows 10 and is 10 GB. You have Windows Pre installation Environment (Windows PE) installed on a bootable USB drive that uses the FAT32 file system. You plan to use the USB drive to deploy the Windows 10 image to a computer that starts in UEFI mode. You need to copy the image to the USB disk. Which command should you run first?

A.    dism.exe with the /Split-Image parameter
B.    dism.exe with the /Append-Image parameter
C.    dism.exe with the /Export-Image parameter
D.    dism.exe with the /Cleanup-Image parameter

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 104
You have a computer named Computer 1. You deploy a custom image of Windows 10 to Computer 1. You need to verify whether Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) is enabled on Computer 1. Which command should you run?

A.    dism.exe
B.    bcdboot.exe
C.    reagent.exe
D.    msconfig.exe

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 105
You are customizing a Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) image. You plan to customize the push-button reset experience by using extensibility scripts. You need to add a file to Windows RE that will execute at an extensibility point. Which extension should the file have?

A.    .js
B.    .exe
C.    .vbs
D.    .msi

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/deploy-push-button-reset-features

NEW QUESTION 106
You deploy an image of Windows 10 to a reference computer. You update the image and are ready to reseal the image. You need to create an image that can be deployed to several new computers. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.    sysprep.exe /audit/quiet
B.    sysprep.exe /quit/quiet
C.    sysprep.exe /generalize/oobe/shutdown
D.    sysprep.exe /oobe/restart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 107
You attempt to deploy an image of Windows 10 to a new model of computers. You discover that the deployment fails because of an unsupported mass storage device. You need to ensure that Windows 10 can be deployed successfully to the new computers. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?

A.    /Add-Capability
B.    /Add-Driver
C.    /Add-Package
D.    /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E.    /Capture-Image
F.    /Cleanup-Image
G.    /Export-Image
H.    /Split-Image

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 108
You apply the latest updates to an image of Windows 10. You need to remove all the superseded components from the image and to mark the latest updates as permanent. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?

A.    /Add-Capability
B.    /Add-Driver
C.    /Add-Package
D.    /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E.    /Capture-Image
F.    /Cleanup-Image
G.    /Export-Image
H.    /Split-Image

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 109
You are configuring an image of Windows 10 for a new model of computers that will be deployed to a multilingual region. You need to ensure that the image supports multiple languages. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?

A.    /Add-Capability
B.    /Add-Driver
C.    /Add-Package
D.    /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E.    /Capture-Image
F.    /Cleanup-Image
G.    /Export-Image
H.    /Split-Image

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 110
Your company has several images of Windows 10. You need to add the Microsoft .NET 3.5 Framework package to an image of Windows 10 by using Features on Demand. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?

A.    /Add-Capability
B.    /Add-Driver
C.    /Add-Package
D.    /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E.    /Capture-Image
F.    /Cleanup-Image
G.    /Export-Image
H.    /Split-Image

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 111
Your company has several images of Windows 10. The company develops a Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app named App1. App1 is unavailable in the Windows. You need to sideload App1 to the image. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?

A.    /Add-Capability
B.    /Add-Driver
C.    /Add-Package
D.    /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E.    /Capture-Image
F.    /Cleanup-Image
G.    /Export-Image
H.    /Split-Image

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 112
You have an image of Windows 10. The image contains a Windows Store app. You test the app and discover that the app fails to run correctly. You need to verify the dependencies of the app. Which command or cmdlet should you run?

A.    Get-WindowsPackage
B.    Get-AppxPackage
C.    dism.exe /Get-Capabilities
D.    dism.exe /Get-AppxProvisionedPackage

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 113
You are creating an image of Windows 10 that will contain a Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) image. The Windows RE image will be 250 MB. What is the minimum size that you should set for the Windows RE partition?

A.    251 MB
B.    300 MB
C.    500 MB
D.    620 MB

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 114
……


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NEW QUESTION 167
You have an Azure DNS zone named adatum.com. You need to delegate a subdomain named research.adatum.com to a different DNS server in Azure. What should you do?

A.    Create an PTR record named research in the adatum.com zone.
B.    Create an NS record named research in the adatum.com zone.
C.    Modify the SOA record of adatum.com.
D.    Create an A record named research in the adatum.com zone.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Configure A records for the domains and sub domains.
http://www.stefanjohansson.org/2012/12/how-to-configure-custom-dns-names-for-multiple-subdomain-based-azure-web-sites/

NEW QUESTION 168
You have an Azure subscription that contains a storage account named account1. You plan to upload the disk files of a virtual machine to account1 from your on-premises network. The on-premises network uses a public IP address space of 131.107.1.0/24. You plan to use the disk files to provision an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 will be attached to a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 uses an IP address space of 192.168.0.0/24. You need to configure account1 to meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that you can upload the disk files to account1.
– Ensure that you can attach the disks to VM1.
– Prevent all other access to account1.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct selection presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From the Firewalls and virtual networks blade of account1, add the 131.107.1.0/24 IP address range.
B.    From the Firewalls and virtual networks blade of account1, select Selected networks.
C.    From the Firewalls and virtual networks blade of acount1, add VNet1.
D.    From the Firewalls and virtual networks blade of account1, select Allow trusted Microsoft services to access this storage account.
E.    From the Service endpoints blade of VNet1, add a service endpoint.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: By default, storage accounts accept connections from clients on any network. To limit access to selected networks, you must first change the default action.
E: Grant access from a Virtual Network. Storage accounts can be configured to allow access only from specific Azure Virtual Networks. By enabling a Service Endpoint for Azure Storage within the Virtual Network, traffic is ensured an optimal route to the Azure Storage service. The identities of the virtual network and the subnet are also transmitted with each request.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

NEW QUESTION 169
You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours.
Solution: From Azure Network Watcher, you create a connection monitor.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Network Watcher provides tools to monitor, diagnose, view metrics, and enable or disable logs for resources in an Azure virtual network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview

NEW QUESTION 170
You have a virtual network named VNet1 as shown in the exhibit:

No devices are connected to VNet1. You plan to peer VNet1 to another virtual network named VNet2 in the same region. VNet2 has an address space of 10.2.0.0/16. You need to create the peering. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the address space of VNet1.
B.    Configure a service endpoint on VNet2.
C.    Add a gateway subnet to VNet1.
D.    Create a subnet on VNet1 and VNet2.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The virtual networks you peer must have non-overlapping IP address spaces.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

NEW QUESTION 171
You have an Azure subscription that contains three virtual networks named VNet1, VNet2, VNet3. VNet2 contains a virtual appliance named VM2 that operates as a router. You are configuring the virtual networks in a hub and spoke topology that uses VNet2 as the hub network. You plan to configure peering between VNet1 and VNet2 and between VNet2 and VNet3. You need to provide connectivity between VNet1 and VNet3 through VNet2. Which two configurations should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On the peering connections, allow forwarded traffic.
B.    On the peering connections, allow gateway transit.
C.    Create route tables and assign the table to subnets.
D.    Create a route filter.
E.    On the peering connections, use remote gateways.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
Allow gateway transit: Check this box if you have a virtual network gateway attached to this virtual network and want to allow traffic from the peered virtual network to flow through the gateway. The peered virtual network must have the Use remote gateways checkbox checked when setting up the peering from the other virtual network to this virtual network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

NEW QUESTION 172
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users. What should you do?

A.    Configure a playbook in Azure AD conditional access policy.
B.    Create an Azure AD conditional access policy.
C.    Create and configure the Identify Hub.
D.    Install and configure Azure AD Connect.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-mfasettings

NEW QUESTION 173
From the MFA Server blade, you open the Block/unblock users blade as shown in the exhibit:

A blocked user will not receive Multi-Factor Authentication requests. Authentication attempts for that user will be automatically denied. A user will remain blocked for 90 days from the time they are blocked. To manually unblock a user, click the “Unblock” action. What caused AlexW to be blocked?

A.    The user entered an incorrect PIN four times within 10 minutes.
B.    The user account password expired.
C.    An administrator manually blocked the user.
D.    The user reported a fraud alert when prompted for additional authentication.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 174
You have the Azure virtual networks shown in the following table:

To which virtual networks can you establish a peering connection from VNet1?

A.    VNet2 and VNet3 only.
B.    VNet2 only.
C.    VNet3 and VNet4 only.
D.    VNet2, VNet3, and VNet4.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The virtual networks you peer must have non-overlapping IP address spaces. The VNet1 and VNet2 address spaces overlap. The range of VNet2 is contained inside the range of VNet1.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

NEW QUESTION 175
You have two Azure virtual networks named VNet1 and VNet2. VNet1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VNet2 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM2. VM1 hosts a frontend application that connects to VM2 to retrieve data. Users report that the frontend application is slower than usual. You need to view the average round-trip time (RTT) of the packets from VM1 to VM2. Which Azure Network Watcher feature should you use?

A.    NSG flow logs
B.    Connection troubleshoot
C.    IP flow verify
D.    Connection monitor

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Connection Monitor feature in Azure Network Watcher is now generally available in all public regions. Connection Monitor provides you RTT values on a per-minute granularity. You can monitor a direct TCP connection from a virtual machine to a virtual machine, FQDN, URI, or IPv4 address.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/general-availability-azure-network-watcher-connection-monitor-in-all-public-regions/

NEW QUESTION 176
You are troubleshooting a performance issue for an Azure Application Gateway. You need to compare the total requests to the failed requests during the past six hours. What should you use?

A.    Metrics in Application Gateway
B.    Diagnostics logs in Application Gateway
C.    NSG flow logs in Azure Network Watcher
D.    Connection monitor in Azure Network Watcher

Answer: A
Explanation:
Application Gateway currently has seven metrics to view performance counters. Metrics are a feature for certain Azure resources where you can view performance counters in the portal. For Application Gateway, the following metrics are available:
– Total Requests
– Failed Requests
– Current Connections
– Healthy Host Count
– Response Status
– Throughput
– Unhealthy Host Count
You can filter on a per backend pool basis to show healthy/unhealthy hosts in a specific backend pool.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-diagnostics#Metrics

NEW QUESTION 177
……


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NEW QUESTION 242
Refer to the exhibit:

You have a suboptimal outbound routing issue in the data center. Which two options can you use to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A.    On the QTV edge devices, configure an ACL that prevents hosts from reaching the FHRP master router on the other site.
B.    Configure the same FHRP priority on all of the OTV edge devices in both sites.
C.    Remove the VLAN from which FHRP hellos are sent from the extended VLAN range.
D.    On the QTV edge devices, configure a VACL that prevents FHRP hellos from being forwarded on the overlay.
E.    On the OTV VDC configure an OTV MAC route filter that prevents the virtual FHRP MAC address from being announced to other sites.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 243
Refer to the exhibit:

Which type of domain does the configuration create?

A.    Layer 3 local
B.    Layer 2 global
C.    Layer 3 global
D.    Layer 2 local

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 244
Refer to the exhibit:

Which fabric-provided MAC address does the switch use when connecting to an end node on VSAN 9?

A.    40.15.18.5e.ff.01
B.    0e.fc.00.5e.ff.01
C.    5e.ff.01.0e.fc.00
D.    40.15.18.oe.fc.00

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 245
Refer to the exhibit:

What is the effect of the bind interface eth 1/16 command on the vfc130 interface?

A.    It attaches the physical Fibre Channel interface to the virtual Fibre Channel interface.
B.    It attaches the FCoE interface to the VSAN interface.
C.    It transitions the port to the forwarding state of the spanning tree automatically.
D.    It attaches the virtual Fibre Channel interface to the physical interface.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 246
Refer to the exhibit:

The configuration belongs to which link?

A.    Link C on Switch4
B.    Link D on Switch4
C.    Link B on Switch2
D.    Link A on Switch2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 247
Refer to the exhibit:

Which two features must you configure on Switch 2 to establish a VSAN trunk between Switch 1 and Switch 2? (Choose two.)

A.    F port
B.    Trunk Mode On
C.    NP port
D.    Trunk Mode Auto
E.    E port

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 248
Refer to the exhibit:

How does Switch 1 route traffic to the Level 2 network?

A.    Switch 1 prefers Switch 3 as the path to the Level 2 network.
B.    Switch 1 sends 75 percent of the traffic destined for Level 2 to Switch 3 and 25 percent to Switch 2.
C.    Switch 1 load balances traffic destined for Level 2 between Switch 2 and Switch 3.
D.    Switch 1 prefers Switch 2 as the path to the Level 2 network.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 249
Refer to the exhibit:

Which statement about STP on the vPC is true?

A.    N7K-1 preempts N7K-2 as the STP root.
B.    N7K-1 appears as the STP root.
C.    N7K-1 and N7K-2 appear as a single STP bridge.
D.    N7K-2 appears as the STP root.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 250
Which three types of interfaces are required when implementing VXLAN on a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch? (Choose three.)

A.    Ethernet
B.    Overlay
C.    ACI
D.    Loopback
E.    NVE
F.    Management

Answer: AED

NEW QUESTION 251
Which feature does a vFC interface support?

A.    SAN port channels
B.    Port tracking
C.    Buffer-to-buffer credits
D.    F Port mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 252
Which two actions are required when configuring LISP virtual machine mobility across subnets? (Choose two.)

A.    Filter HSRP hello messages across data centers to create an active-active HSRP setup.
B.    Enable proxy ARP on the interfaces that allow virtual machine mobility.
C.    Configure different MAC addresses across all the HSRP groups.
D.    Ensure that all the HSRP virtual IP addresses are different in the extended LANs.
E.    Propagate ARP packets across all the broadcast domains of the data center.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 253
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NEW QUESTION 111
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM). You enroll several Apple iOS devices and deploy compliance policies. One of the devices is marked as noncompliant. You need to retrieve the logs from the device.
Solution: You turn on the collection of usage data on the device. From Settings, you tap Company Portal, and then turn on Usage data.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 112
Your company uses a network ID of 10.0.0.0/8. The company opens a new office that uses a network ID of 10.5.0.0/16. The office has three floors. Each floor has a VLAN. The network ID of each VLAN is 10.5.10.0/24, 10.5.20.0/24, and 10.5.30.0/24. You create a distribution point for the new office. You need to ensure that the clients in the new office obtain content from the new distribution point.
Solution: Create an IP address range boundary from 10.5.1.1 to 10.5.255.255.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/define-site-boundaries-and-boundary-groups

NEW QUESTION 113
Your company uses a network ID of 10.0.0.0/8. The company opens a new office that uses a network ID of 10.5.0.0/16. The office has three floors. Each floor has a VLAN. The network ID of each VLAN is 10.5.10.0/24, 10.5.20.0/24, and 10.5.30.0/24. You create a distribution point for the new office. You need to ensure that the clients in the new office obtain content from the new distribution point.
Solution: Create an Active Directory site associated to the 10.5.0.0/16 subnet, and then create an Active Directory site boundary.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 114
Your company uses a network ID of 10.0.0.0/8. The company opens a new office that uses a network ID of 10.5.0.0/16. The office has three floors. Each floor has a VLAN. The network ID of each VLAN is 10.5.10.0/24, 10.5.20.0/24, and 10.5.30.0/24. You create a distribution point for the new office. You need to ensure that the clients in the new office obtain content from the new distribution point.
Solution: Create an IP subnet boundary for 10.5.10.0/24, 10.5.20.0/24, and 10.5.30.0/24.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 115
Your company uses a network ID of 10.0.0.0/8. The company opens a new office that uses a network ID of 10.5.0.0/16. The office has three floors. Each floor has a VLAN. The network ID of each VLAN is 10.5.10.0/24, 10.5.20.0/24, and 10.5.30.0/24. You create a distribution point for the new office. You need to ensure that the clients in the new office obtain content from the new distribution point.
Solution: Create an IP address range boundary from 10.5.0.0/16.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 116
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure a cloud management gateway for Configuration Manager. You have a client computer that is currently on the corporate network. You need to force the computer to get the location of the cloud management gateway immediately.
Solution: You run the Get-CMClientOperations cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 117
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure a cloud management gateway for Configuration Manager. You have a client computer that is currently on the corporate network. You need to force the computer to get the location of the cloud management gateway immediately.
Solution: You restart the Network Location Awareness service.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 118
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure a cloud management gateway for Configuration Manager. You have a client computer that is currently on the corporate network. You need to force the computer to get the location of the cloud management gateway immediately.
Solution: You run the Get-CloudDistributionPoint cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 119
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure a cloud management gateway for Configuration Manager. You have a client computer that is currently on the corporate network. You need to force the computer to get the location of the cloud management gateway immediately.
Solution: You restart the SMS Agent Host service.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 120
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager that collects the hardware inventory of Windows and Linux client computers. You need to capture additional information about the hardware on the Linux computers.
Solution: You extend the inventory by importing a new inventory class.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/inventory/extend-hardware-inventory

NEW QUESTION 121
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager that collects the hardware inventory of Windows and Linux client computers. You need to capture additional information about the hardware on the Linux computers.
Solution: You create NOIDMIF files to add information to the client hardware inventory.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/inventory/extend-hardware-inventory

NEW QUESTION 122
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager that collects the hardware inventory of Windows and Linux client computers. You need to capture additional information about the hardware on the Linux computers.
Solution: You create a custom hardware inventory provider by using the OMI source.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/inventory/extend-hardware-inventory

NEW QUESTION 123
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager that collects the hardware inventory of Windows and Linux client computers. You need to capture additional information about the hardware on the Linux computers.
Solution: You extend the inventory by adding a new inventory class.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/inventory/extend-hardware-inventory

NEW QUESTION 124
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You need to ensure that help desk users can use the Configuration Manager console to remotely control Configuration Manager clients. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add the help desk users to the local Administrators group on each client computer.
B.    Enable Remote Desktop on the client computers.
C.    Configure a client settings policy.
D.    Allow connections to TCP port 3389 on the client computers.
E.    Allow connections to TCP port 2701 on the client computers.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/remote-control/configuring-remote-control
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb632618.aspx

NEW QUESTION 125
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a single primary server named CM01. CM01 is configured as a distribution point. The main office of your company has multiple floors. Each floor has a VLAN and a subnet. A DHCP server named DC01 currently hosts all the DHCP scopes. You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to deploy operating systems to the client computers on each floor by using the PXE. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure option 60 for each DHCP scope.
B.    Use the Configuration Manager console to distribute the boot image to CM01.
C.    Add the IP address of CM01 to the IP Helper of each VLAN.
D.    Copy the RemoteInstall folder to CM01.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/osd/deploy-use/use-pxe-to-deploy-windows-over-the-network
https://4sysops.com/archives/if-pxe-boot-fails-with-sccm-2012/#dhcp-or-ip-helper-for-pxe-across-subnets

NEW QUESTION 126
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You need to collect detailed usage data from devices. The usage data must be retained for three years. What should you deploy?

A.    A Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) connector.
B.    Software update point switching.
C.    Server groups.
D.    A Data Warehouse service point.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/manage/data-warehouse

NEW QUESTION 127
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You have offices in Montreal and Seattle. You need to deploy software to the client computers in the Montreal office only. What should you do first?

A.    Create an Active Directory container.
B.    Create a user collection that contains the users in the Montreal office.
C.    Configure a boundary group for client assignment.
D.    Create a boundary for the Montreal office that uses IP subnets.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/define-site-boundaries-and-boundary-groups

NEW QUESTION 128
……


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NEW QUESTION 101
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users. What should you do?

A.    Configure a playbook in Azure AD conditional access policy.
B.    Create an Azure AD conditional access policy.
C.    Create and configure the Identify Hub.
D.    Install and configure Azure AD Connect.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-mfasettings

NEW QUESTION 102
You manage a virtual network named Vnet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours.
Solution: From Azure Network Watcher, you create a connection monitor.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Network Watcher provides tools to monitor, diagnose, view metrics, and enable or disable logs for resources in an Azure virtual network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview

NEW QUESTION 103
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
……
More SIMULATION
……

NEW QUESTION 113
You have an Azure subscription that contains three virtual networks named VNet1, VNet2, VNet3. VNet2 contains a virtual appliance named VM2 that operates as a router. You are configuring the virtual networks in a hub and spoke topology that uses VNet2 as the hub network. You plan to configure peering between VNet1 and VNet2 and between VNet2 and VNet3. You need to provide connectivity between VNet1 and VNet3 through VNet2. Which two configurations should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On the peering connections, allow forwarded traffic.
B.    On the peering connections, allow gateway transit.
C.    Create route tables and assign the table to subnets.
D.    Create a route filter.
E.    On the peering connections, use remote gateways.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
Allow Gateway Transit.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

NEW QUESTION 114
You have two Azure virtual networks named VNet1 and VNet2. VNet1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VNet2 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM2. VM1 hosts a frontend application that connects to VM2 to retrieve data. Users report that the frontend application is slower than usual. You need to view the average round-trip time (RTT) of the packets from VM1 to VM2. Which Azure Network Watcher feature should you use?

A.    NSG flow logs
B.    Connection troubleshoot
C.    IP flow verify
D.    Connection monitor

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/general-availability-azure-network-watcher-connection-monitor-in-all-public-regions/

NEW QUESTION 115
You are troubleshooting a performance issue for an Azure Application Gateway. You need to compare the total requests to the failed requests during the past six hours. What should you use?

A.    Metrics in Application Gateway
B.    Diagnostics logs in Application Gateway
C.    NSG flow logs in Azure Network Watcher
D.    Connection monitor in Azure Network Watcher

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-diagnostics#Metrics

NEW QUESTION 116
Drag and Drop
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. VM1 has a single data disk named Disk1. You need to attach Disk1 to VM2. The solution must minimize downtime for both virtual machines. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/detach-disk
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/lab-services/devtest-lab-attach-detach-data-disk

NEW QUESTION 117
Hotspot
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to create a conditional access policy that requires all users to use multi-factor authentication when they access the Azure portal. Which three settings should you configure? (To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-user-risk-policy

NEW QUESTION 118
You have a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains an Azure Storage account named storageaccount1 and a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Storageaccount1 contains the disk files for VM1. You apply a ReadOnly lock to RG1. What can you do from the Azure portal?

A.    Generate an automation script for RG1.
B.    View the keys of storageaccount1.
C.    Upload a blob to storageaccount1.
D.    Start VM1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
ReadOnly means authorized users can read a resource, but they can’t delete or update the resource. Applying this lock is similar to restricting all authorized users to the permissions granted by the Reader role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-lock-resources

NEW QUESTION 119
You configure Azure AD Connect for Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-On (Azure AD Seamless SSO) for an on-premises network. Users report that when they attempt to access myapps.microsoft.com, they are prompted multiple times to sign in and are forced to use an account name that ends with onmicrosoft.com. You discover that there is a UPN mismatch between Azure AD and the on-premises Active Directory. You need to ensure that the users can use single-sign on (SSO) to access Azure resources. What should you do first?

A.    From the on-premises network, deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
B.    From Azure AD, add and verify a custom domain name.
C.    From the on-premises network, request a new certificate that contains the Active Directory domain name.
D.    From the server that runs Azure AD Connect, modify the filtering options.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure AD Connect lists the UPN suffixes that are defined for the domains and tries to match them with a custom domain in Azure AD. Then it helps you with the appropriate action that needs to be taken. The Azure AD sign-in page lists the UPN suffixes that are defined for on-premises Active Directory and displays the corresponding status against each suffix.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-user-signin

NEW QUESTION 120
You have two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft account that you use to sign in to both tenants. You need to configure the default sign-in tenant for the Azure portal. What should you do?

A.    From the Azure portal, configure the portal settings.
B.    From the Azure portal, change the directory.
C.    From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmContext.
D.    From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmSubscription.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Change the subscription directory in the Azure portal. The classic portal feature Edit Directory, that allows you to associate an existing subscription to your Azure Active Directory (AAD), is now available in Azure portal. It used to be available only to Service Admins with Microsoft accounts, but now it’s available to users with AAD accounts as well. To get started:
– go to subscriptions.
– select a subscription.
– select change directory.
Incorrect:
Not C: The Set-AzureRmContext cmdlet sets authentication information for cmdlets that you run in the current session. The context includes tenant, subscription, and environment information.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/edit-directory-now-in-new-portal/

NEW QUESTION 121
……


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NEW QUESTION 200
A security analyst begins to notice the CPU utilization from a sinkhole has begun to spike. Which of the following describes what may be occurring?

A.    Someone has logged on to the sinkhole and is using the device.
B.    The sinkhole has begun blocking suspect or malicious traffic.
C.    The sinkhole has begun rerouting unauthorized traffic.
D.    Something is controlling the sinkhole and causing CPU spikes due to malicious utilization.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 201
Alerts have been received from the SIEM, indicating infections on multiple computers. Base on threat characteristics, these files were quarantined by the host-based antivirus program. At the same time, additional alerts in the SIEM show multiple blocked URLs from the address of the infected computers; the URLs were classified as uncategorized. The domain location of the IP address of the URLs that were blocked is checked, and it is registered to an ISP in Russia. Which of the following steps should be taken NEXT?

A.    Remove those computers from the network and replace the hard drives.
Send the infected hard drives out for investigation.
B.    Run a full antivirus scan on all computers and use Splunk to search for any suspicious activity that happened just before the alerts were received in the SIEM.
C.    Run a vulnerability scan and patch discovered vulnerabilities on the next pathing cycle.
Have the users restart their computers.
Create a use case in the SIEM to monitor failed logins on the infected computers.
D.    Install a computer with the same settings as the infected computers in the DMZ to use as a honeypot.
Permit the URLs classified as uncategorized to and from that host.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 202
Which of the following has the GREATEST impact to the data retention policies of an organization?

A.    The CIA classification matrix assigned to each piece of data.
B.    The level of sensitivity of the data established by the data owner.
C.    The regulatory requirements concerning the data set.
D.    The technical constraints of the technology used to store the data.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 203
A company has decided to process credit card transactions directly. Which of the following would meet the requirements for scanning this type of data?

A.    Quarterly
B.    Yearly
C.    Bi-annually
D.    Monthly

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 204
Which of the following counter measures should the security administrator apply to MOST effectively mitigate Bootkit-level infections of the organization’s workstation devices?

A.    Remove local administrator privileges.
B.    Configure a BIOS-level password on the device.
C.    Install a secondary virus protection application.
D.    Enforce a system state recovery after each device reboot.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 205
A new zero-day vulnerability was discovered within a basic screen capture app, which is used throughout the environment. Two days after discovering the vulnerability, the manufacturer of the software has not announced a remediation or if there will be a fix for this newly discovered vulnerability. The vulnerable application is not uniquely critical, but it is used occasionally by the management and executive management teams. The vulnerability allows remote code execution to gain privileged access to the system. Which of the following is the BEST course of actions to mitigate this threat?

A.    Work with the manufacturer to determine the time frame for the fix.
B.    Block the vulnerable application traffic at the firewall and disable the application services on each computer.
C.    Remove the application and replace it with a similar non-vulnerable application.
D.    Communicate with the end users that the application should not be used until the manufacturer has resolved the vulnerability.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 206
Which of the following tools should a cybersecurity analyst use to verify the integrity of a forensic image before and after an investigation?

A.    strings
B.    sha1sum
C.    file
D.    dd
E.    gzip

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 207
A centralized tool for organizing security events and managing their response and resolution is known as what?

A.    SIEM
B.    HIPS
C.    Syslog
D.    Wireshark

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 208
After a recent security breach, it was discovered that a developer had promoted code that had been written to the production environment as a hotfix to resolve a user navigation issue that was causing issues for several customers. The code had inadvertently granted administrative privileges to all users, allowing inappropriate access to sensitive data and reports. Which of the following could have prevented this code from being released into the production environment?

A.    Cross training
B.    Succession planning
C.    Automate reporting
D.    Separation of duties

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 209
A security analyst is assisting with a computer crime investigation and has been asked to secure a PC and deliver it to the forensic lab. Which of the following items would be MOST helpful to secure the PC? (Choose three.)

A.    Tamper-proof seals
B.    Faraday cage
C.    Chain of custody form
D.    Drive eraser
E.    Write blockers
F.    Network tap
G.    Multimeter

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 210
A nuclear facility manager determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrating the business and ICS network. The solution requires a very small agent to be installed on the ICS equipment. Which of the following is the MOST important security control for the manager to invest in to protect the facility?

A.    Run a penetration test on the installed agent.
B.    Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis.
C.    Require through guides for administrator and users.
D.    Install the agent for a week on a test system and monitor the activities.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 211
A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company trying to mitigate?

A.    Downgrade attacks
B.    Rainbow tables
C.    SSL pinning
D.    Forced deauthentication

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 212
A staff member reported that a laptop has degraded performance. The security analyst has investigated the issue and discovered that CPU utilization, memory utilization, and outbound network traffic are consuming the laptop resources. Which of the following is the BEST course of actions to resolve the problem?

A.    Identify and remove malicious processes.
B.    Disable scheduled tasks.
C.    Suspend virus scan.
D.    Increase laptop memory.
E.    Ensure the laptop OS is properly patched.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 213
A security analyst has discovered that an outbound SFTP process is occurring at the same time of day for the past several days. At the time this was discovered, large amounts of business critical data were delivered. The authentication for this process occurred using a service account with proper credentials. The security analyst investigated the destination IP for this transfer and discovered that this new process is not documented in the change management log. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for the analyst to take?

A.    Investigate a potential incident.
B.    Verify user permissions.
C.    Run a vulnerability scan.
D.    Verify SLA with cloud provider.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 214
During an investigation, a computer is being seized. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?

A.    Power off the computer and remove it from the network.
B.    Unplug the network cable and take screenshots of the desktop.
C.    Perform a physical hard disk image.
D.    Initiate chain-of-custody documentation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 215
An organization has recently experienced a data breach. A forensic analysis confirmed the attacker found a legacy web server that had not been used in over a year and was not regularly patched. After a discussion with the security team, management decided to initiate a program of network reconnaissance and penetration testing. They want to start the process by scanning the network for active hosts and open ports. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this job?

A.    Ping
B.    Nmap
C.    Netstat
D.    ifconfig
E.    Wireshark
F.    L0phtCrack

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 216
A medical organization recently started accepting payments over the phone. The manager is concerned about the impact of the storage of different types of data. Which of the following types of data incurs the highest regulatory constraints?

A.    PHI
B.    PCI
C.    PII
D.    IP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 217
An organization wants to remediate vulnerabilities associated with its web servers. An initial vulnerability scan has been performed, and analysts are reviewing the results. Before starting any remediation, the analysts want to remove false positives to avoid spending time on issues that are not actual vulnerabilities. Which of the following would be an indicator of a likely false positive?

A.    Reports indicate that findings are informational.
B.    Any items labeled `low’ are considered informational only.
C.    The scan result version is different from the automated asset inventory.
D.    `HTTPS’ entries indicate the web page is encrypted securely.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 218
An insurance company employs quick-response team drivers that carry corporate-issued mobile devices with the insurance company’s app installed on them. Devices are configuration-hardened by an MDM and kept up to date. The employees use the app to collect insurance claim information and process payments. Recently, a number of customers have filed complaints of credit card fraud against the insurance company, which occurred shortly after their payments were processed via the mobile app. The cyber-incident response team has been asked to investigate. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A.    The MDM server is misconfigured.
B.    The app does not employ TLS.
C.    USB tethering is enabled.
D.    3G and less secure cellular technologies are not restricted.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 219
A cybersecurity consultant found common vulnerabilities across the following services used by multiple servers at an organization: VPN, SSH, and HTTPS. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the discovered vulnerabilities?

A.    Leaked PKI private key
B.    Vulnerable version of OpenSSL
C.    Common initialization vector
D.    Weak level of encryption entropy
E.    Vulnerable implementation of PEAP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 220
A recent audit included a vulnerability scan that found critical patches released 60 days prior were not applied to servers in the environment. The infrastructure team was able to isolate the issue and determined it was due to a service being disabled on the server running the automated patch management application. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to avoid similar audit findings in the future?

A.    Implement a manual patch management application package to regain greater control over the process.
B.    Create a patch management policy that requires all servers to be patched within 30 days of patch release.
C.    Implement service monitoring to validate that tools are functioning properly.
D.    Set services on the patch management server to automatically run on start-up.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 221
……


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NEW QUESTION 274
Which of the following is the ping response to a transmitted ICMP echo datagram that needed to be fragmented when fragmentation was not permitted?

A.    U
B.    L
C.    M
D.    D

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 275
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (Choose two.)

A.    Firefighting
B.    Interrupt-driven
C.    Policy-based
D.    Structured

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 276
Which three of the following are reasons EIGRP neighbor relationships might form? (Choose three.)

A.    Different autonomous system numbers
B.    Different K values
C.    Different timers
D.    Different authentication parameters

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 277
What type of cable is used to connect to the console port?

A.    Straight-through
B.    Crossover
C.    Rollover
D.    Coaxial

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 278
Which statement best describes GRE protocol?

A.    GRE adds the new IP header, encapsulates the original IP packet, and adds the GRE header at the end of the IP packet.
B.    GRE adds the new IP header, inserts the GRE header, and encapsulates the original IP packet.
C.    GRE uses the original IP header and adds the GRE header at the end of the packet.
D.    GRE uses the original IP header and inserts the GRE header between the IP header and payload.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 279
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, andRouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B.    RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C.    RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D.    RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E.    RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F.    RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.

Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 280
You are troubleshooting an issue with a GRE tunnel between R1 and R2 and find that routing is OK on all intermediary routers. The tunnel is up on R1, but down on R2. Which two possible issues can prevent the tunnel from coming up? (Choose two.)

A.    The tunnel does not come up unless traffic is sent through it.
B.    The tunnel source interface is down on R2.
C.    No specific route interface is down on R2.
D.    R2 does not know how to reach the tunnel destination.
E.    The tunnel keep alive timer doesn’t match on R1 and R2.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 281
A client reports all password in plan text after running `show archive log config all’. How can you prevent/encrypt all messages?

A.    password encrypt aes
B.    hidekeys
C.    service-password encryption
D.    aaa authentication arap

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 282
Which of the following that WFQ not supported on control plane?

A.    router capabilities
B.    bandwidth command
C.    missing license

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 283
Exhibit about a GRE tunnel … what would be the best tunnel destination for max resiliency?

A.    Loopback IP address
B.    Serial IP address
C.    Fastethernet IP address

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 284
Question is bout debugging fragmentation, …?

A.    debug tcp
B.    debug ip icmp
C.    debug ip packet detail

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 285
A network engineer has configured GRE between two IOS routers. The state of the tunnel interface is continuously oscillating between up and down. What is the best solution to this problem?

A.    Create a more specific static route to define how to reach the remote router.
B.    Create a more specific ARP entry to define how to reach the remote router.
C.    Save the configuration and reload the router.
D.    Check whether the internet service provider link is stable.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 286
……


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NEW QUESTION 260
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1. All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10. Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network. Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to remote access server that runs Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subjects to access policies in Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. All Windows computers on the network are activated by using Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use Remote Desktop Services (RDS). You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network. Which action can you perform on the network by using IPAM?

A.    Audit authentication events from DC1.
B.    Create DHCP reservations on DHCP1.
C.    Audit certificate enrollment requests on CA1.
D.    Manage activations on the KMS server.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 261
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V role on Server1. Server1 has eight network adapters that are dedicated to virtual machines. The network adapters are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)-enabled. You plan to use Software Defined Networking (SDN). You will host the virtual machines for multiple tenants on the Hyper-V host. You need to ensure that the network connections for the virtual machines are resilient if one or more physical network adapters fail. What should you implement?

A.    NIC Teaming on the Hyper-V Host
B.    Virtual Receive-Side Scaling (vRSS)
C.    Switch Embedded Teaming (SET)
D.    Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 262
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. Your company recently deployed DirectAccess for the members of a group named DA_Computers. All client computers are members of DA_Computers. You discover that DirectAccess clients can access the resources located in the contoso.com domain only. The clients can access the resources in the litwareinc.com domain by using an L2TP VPN connection to the network. You need to ensure that the DirectAccess clients can access the resources in the litwareinc.com domain. What should you do?

A.    On an external DNS server, create a zone delegation for litwareinc.com.
B.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT).
C.    Add the servers in litwareinc.com to the RAS and IAS Servers group.
D.    From the properties of the servers in litwareinc.com, configure the delegation settings.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 263
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The hosts are nodes in failover cluster. You have a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 connects to a virtual switch named vSwitch1. You discover that VM1 automatically live migrates when vSwitch temporarily disconnects. You need to prevent VM1 from being live migrated when vSwitch1 temporarily disconnects. What should you do?

A.    From the network adapter setting of VM1, disable the Protected network setting.
B.    From the network adapter setting of VM1, disable the Heartbeat integration service.
C.    Run the Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet and set IsmanagementOS to False.
D.    Run the Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet and set StormLimit to 0.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 264
You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains four nodes named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. You need to configure Cluster1 to use directly attached storage to host several virtual machines. You run the Enable-ClusterStorageSpacesDirect cmdlet on Server1. What should you do next?

A.    Run the Enable-ClusterStorageSpacesDirect cmdlet on the other three nodes.
B.    Create volumes.
C.    Create a storage pool.
D.    Run the Add-ClusterResource cmdlet on all of the nodes.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 265
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Each server has an operating system disk and four data disks. All of the disks are locally attached SATA disks. Each disk is a basic disk, is initialized as an MBR disk, and has a single NTFS volume. You plan to implement Storage Spaces Direct by using the data disks on Server1 and Server2. You need to prepare the data disks for the Storage Spaces Direct implementation. What should you do?

A.    Format the volumes on the data disks as exFAT.
B.    Initialize the data disks as GPT disks and create a ReFS volume on each disk.
C.    Convert the data disks to dynamic disks.
D.    Delete the volumes from the data disks.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 266
You use Application Request Routing (ARR) to make internal web applications available to the Internet by using NTLM authentication. You need to replace ARR by using the Web Application Proxy. Which server role should you deploy first?

A.    Active Directory Rights Management Services
B.    Active Directory Federation Services
C.    Active Directory Certificate Services
D.    Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 267
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is an IP Address Management (IPAM) server that collects DHCP and DNS logs and events for your entire network. You need to enable a user named TECH1 to create pointer (PTR), host (A) and service location (SRV) records on all of the DNS servers on the network. What should you do on Server1?

A.    From the IPAM node in Server Manager, assign the IPAM DNS Administrator Role to TECH1 and create a new access policy.
B.    Run the Set-IpamCustomField cmdlet, and then run the Set-IpamAddressSpace cmdlet.
C.    Run the Set-IpamCustomField cmdlet, and then run the Set-IpamAccessScope cmdlet.
D.    Run the Set-IpamRange cmdlet, and then run the Set-IpamAddressSpace cmdlet.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268
Drag and Drop
On a new server, you install Windows Server 2016, and then you install the Hyper-V server role. You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows containers that use an image of the Server Core installation of Windows Server. Which four commands should you use in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/quick-start/quick-start-windows-server

NEW QUESTION 269
Hotspot
You deploy a new Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows 2016. You implement receive side scaling (RSS) on Server1. The chipset on Server1 does not support NetDMA. All of the equipment on your network supports 10-Gbps connectivity. On Server1, you deploy a virtual machine named VM1. You configure VM1 to aggregate all of the Windows and non-Windows log files for all of the servers on the network. VM1 has four virtual processors. You discover that VM1 drops packets. You monitor the network, and you discover that the network capacity is sufficient for the monitoring traffic. You monitor the performance of VM1, and you discover that one processor is consistently at 100 percent utilization, while the other processor is barely in use. You need to resolve the performance issue. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 270
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NEW QUESTION 188
You are developing a mobile app to manage meetups. The app allows for users to view the 25 closest people with similar interests. You have a table that contains records for approximately two million people. You create the table by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You create the following table valued function to generate lists of people:

You need to build a report that shows meetings with at least two people only. What should you use?

A.    OUTER APPLY
B.    CROSS APPLY
C.    PIVOT
D.    LEFT OUTER JOIN

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.sqlshack.com/the-difference-between-cross-apply-and-outer-apply-in-sql-server/

NEW QUESTION 189
You develop and deploy a project management application. The application uses a Microsoft SQL Server database to store data. You are developing a software bug tracking add-on for the application. The add-on must meet the following requirements:
– Allow case sensitive searches for product.
– Filter search results based on exact text in the description.
– Support multibyte Unicode characters.
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

You need to ensure that users can perform searches of descriptions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/contains-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 190
You are building a stored procedure named SP1 that calls a stored procedure named SP2. SP2 calls another stored procedure named SP3 that returns a Recordset. The Recordset is stored in a temporary table. You need to ensure that SP2 returns a text value to SP1. What should you do?

A.    Create a temporary table in SP2, and then insert the text value into the table.
B.    Return the text value by using the ReturnValue when SP2 is called.
C.    Add the txt value to an OUTPUT parameter of SP2.
D.    Create a table variable in SP2, and then insert the text value into the table.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 191
Drag and Drop
You have a database named DB1 that contains a table named HR.Employees. HR.Employees contains two columns named ManagerID and EmployeeID. ManagerID refers to EmployeeID. You need to create a query that returns a list of all employees, the manager of each employee, and the numerical level of each employee in your organization’s hierarchy. Which five statements should you add to the query in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://blog.sqlauthority.com/2012/04/24/sql-server-introduction-to-hierarchical-query-using-a-recursive-cte-a-primer/

NEW QUESTION 192
Hotspot
You have the following Transact-SQL statement:
DELETE FROM Person
WHERE PersonID = 5
You need to implement error handling. How should you complete Transact-SQL statement? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/try-catch-transact-sql?view=sql-server-201

NEW QUESTION 193
You are creating indexes in a data warehouse. You have a dimension table named Table1 that has 10,000 rows. The rows are used to generate several reports. The reports join a column that is the primary key. The execution plan contains bookmark lookups for Table1. You discover that the reports run slower than expected. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to run the reports.
Solution: You create a nonclustered index on the primary key column that does NOT include columns.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/indexes/clustered-and-nonclustered-indexes-described?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 194
You have a table named Person that contains information about employees. Users are requesting a way to access specific columns from the Person table without specifying the Person table in the query statement. The columns that users can access will be determined when the query is running against the data. There are some records that are restricted, and a trigger will evaluate whether the request is attempting to access a restricted record. You need to ensure that users can access the needed columns while minimizing storage on the database server. What should you implement?

A.    the COALESCE function
B.    a view
C.    a table-valued function
D.    the TRY_PARSE function
E.    a stored procedure
F.    the ISNULL function
G.    a scalar function
H.    the TRY_CONVERT function

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-view-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 195
You have a date related query that would benefit from an indexed view. You need to create the indexed view. Which two Transact-SQL functions can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    DATEADD
B.    AT TIME ZONE
C.    GETUTCDATE
D.    DATEDIFF

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/functions/date-and-time-data-types-and-functions-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017#DateandTimeFunctions

NEW QUESTION 196
……


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NEW QUESTION 200
Which two are Fibre Channel topologies? (Choose two.)

A.    spine and leaf topology
B.    port-to-port
C.    port-to-multipoint
D.    star topology
E.    arbirated loop

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 201
Which two statements about a sipne and-leaf data center design are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The design is a three-tier architecture.
B.    The design is a two-tier architecture.
C.    A spine switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center design.
D.    All spine switches connect directly to one another.
E.    A leaf switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center design.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 202
How many layers are present in the OSI layer model versus the TCP/IP model?

A.    5 layers in OSI and 6 layers in TCP/IP
B.    6 layers in OSI and 3 layers in TCP/IP
C.    4 layers in OSI and 7 layers in TCP/IP
D.    7 layers in OSI and 4 layers in TCP/IP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 203
Which description of a vFC interface is true?

A.    It can be associated to more than one VSAN.
B.    It must be bound to an FCoE-enabled Ethernet or EtherChannel interface.
C.    It can be associated to a private VLAN.
D.    It can be associated to an FCoE VLAN.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 204
Which statement about the HSRP protocol is true?

A.    Multiple routers in an HSRP group are in an active state, to enable round-robin load balancing of traffic.
B.    In Cisco NX-OS. HSRP is configured to pre-empt by default.
C.    HSRP version 2 is an open standard protocol that is described in RFC 2281.
D.    One router in an HSRP group is in an active state. All other routers are in a standby state or listening state.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 205
Which reason for configuring a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch in NPV mode is valid?

A.    to increase the domain ID limit by assigning subdomain IDs to the edge switches
B.    to share all the domain IDs with the core and edge switches
C.    to eliminate the domain ID limit by assigning a different domain ID to the core switch
D.    to alleviate the domain ID limit by sharing the domain ID with the edge switches

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 206
Which two types of interface exist on Cisco Nexus Fabric Extender? (Choose two.)

A.    network interface (NIF)
B.    uplink interface (UIF)
C.    host interface (HIF)
D.    edge interface (EIF)
E.    trunk interface (TIF)

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 207
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)

A.    memory extension node
B.    hard drive
C.    fabric interconnect
D.    power supply
E.    compute node

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 208
Which description of NPIV is true?

A.    It allows storage traffic to transverse Ethernet networks.
B.    It exchanges zone information through the fabric.
C.    It assigns multiple Fiber Channel IDs to a single N Port.
D.    It is enabled on a per-VSAN basis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 209
Which statement about FHRP protocols is true?

A.    GLBP group member routers respond to ARP requests by providing their physical MAC addresses.
B.    If HSRP priority is not configured, then the router with the highest IP address in the group is elected as active.
C.    VRRP and GLBP are standards-based protocols.
D.    VRRP provides load balancing by sharing the same virtual MAC address on all VRRP routers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 210
Which two protocols are associated with the link layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two.)

A.    VTP
B.    SSH
C.    CDP
D.    BGP
E.    DNS

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 211
The MAC address table on a Cisco Nexus Series switch is full What Layer 2 network behavior will occur while the network MAC address table remains full?

A.    The switch will remove all dynamically learned MAC addresses from the table.
B.    Frames with an unknown destination address will be flooded.
C.    All frames will be flooded.
D.    The switch will reset the MAC address table, removing all MAC addresses.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 212
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the protocols on the left to the correct storage types for which they are used on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 213
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the FCoE protocols on the left to the correct descriptions on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 214
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NEW QUESTION 456
Which option is an example of a fixed two-level hierarchical routing protocol?

A.    OSPF
B.    EIGRP
C.    OSPF
D.    RIPv2

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 457
Which type of router connects to two different OSPF areas?

A.    Area border
B.    Autonomous system boundary
C.    Backbone
D.    Internal

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 458
Where should be VPN connection be terminated?

A.    DMZ
B.    Internet
C.    Remote Access

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 459
An engineer is planning branch WAN links to support unified communications. Which DSCP value must be assigned to voice traffic?

A.    EF
B.    AF41
C.    COS4
D.    BE

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 460
During IP addressing design, which factor should be considered? (Choose two.)

A.    No of devices in each location
B.    No of location available
C.    Device capability

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 461
Which command should you use to get information from a device?

A.    Show running
B.    Show cdp
C.    Show tech-support

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 462
Which format reflects that of the IPv6 global unicast address?

A.    Global prefix (16 bits), subnet ID (16 bits), interface ID (64 bits)
B.    Global prefix (48 bits), subnet ID (16 bits), interface ID (64 bits)
C.    Global prefix (16 bits), subnet ID (64 bits), interface ID (48 bits)
D.    Global prefix (16 bits), subnet ID (16 bits), interface ID (64 bits)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 463
Which two techniques can you sue to reduce the size of a network routing table? (Choose two.)

A.    Implement VPN
B.    Implement NAT
C.    Route Summarization
D.    Configure static routing
E.    Utilize a default route

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 464
An engineer wants to find all of the objects of a certain type available in the MIT. Which kind of query must be performed?

A.    object-level
B.    tree-leve
C.    class-level
D.    subtree-level

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 465
You have a server hosted on the server farm module. The server is configured to listen to the TCP port 140. What NAT is best for this?

A.    STATIC
B.    Dynamic
C.    Overload

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 466
Critical for availability remote office has a complete redundant link to WAN. What can improve the availability of a remote office?

A.    Install dual power supply
B.    Use different line cards
C.    Increase the speed of WAN links from 100 Mb/s to 1 Gbps
D.    Replace the wired connection with the optics

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 467
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)

A.    Improves flexibility
B.    Facilitates implementation
C.    Lowers implementation costs
D.    Improves customer participation in the design process

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 468
How does the use of multiple areas in a link state routing protocol improve network scalability?

A.    Reduced network bandwidth
B.    Permits partial table updates
C.    Enables route summarization
D.    Overcomes router hop limit

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 469
While designing a remote access VPN, a customer has requested three different levels of access to be granted for administrator, employees, and partners. Which three access policies must be configured for the three groups? (Choose three.)

A.    Partners are centrally authenticated with limited network access controller with ACLs.
B.    Administrative users have local credentials with full access to the internal infrastructure.
C.    Administrative users are centrally authenticated with full access to the internal infrastructure.
D.    Employees are centrally authenticated with limited network access controlled with ACLs.
E.    Employees are centrally authenticated with full access to the internal infrastructure.
F.    Partners are centrally authenticated with full access to the internal infrastructure.

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 470
Which option can hinder efficient IP address allocation?

A.    VLSM
B.    Classless routing protocols
C.    Routing auto-summary
D.    Classful routing protocols

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 471
One step in characterizing an existing network involves obtaining information such as network performance, availability, utilization and response times. Which activity generates this information?

A.    Logical network mapping
B.    Network health check
C.    Address naming analysis
D.    Wiring and media assessment

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 472
For which type of topology are modern fast-converging routing protocols designed?

A.    Hub-and-spoke
B.    Full mesh
C.    Hierarchical
D.    Star

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 473
Which two major campus design models does the Cisco Unified Wireless Network support? (Choose two.)

A.    Local mode
B.    Cisco FlexConnect
C.    Deterministic
D.    Dynamic

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 474
A diagram and then a configuration of access list interface shown, then which device is QoS trust boundary?

A.    IP Phone
B.    Access switch
C.    Core
D.    Distribution

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 475
Considering efficient utilization of IP Addressing, what mask you will use in a point to point connection?

A.    255.255.255.0
B.    255.255.255.252
C.    255.255.255.254
D.    255.255.255.255

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 476
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