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Case Study 1 – Best For You Organics Company
Best For You Organics Company is a global restaurant franchise that has multiple locations. The company wants to enhance user experiences and vendor integrations. The company plans to implement automated mobile ordering and delivery services.
……

NEW QUESTION 1
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You need to resolve the chatbot issue. What should you do?

A.    Update the bot to store and retrieve state data.
B.    Update the bot to overload the Dialog class constructor and invoke the root dialog.
C.    Update the bot to pass native metadata to a channel in the Activity object’s Channel Data property.
D.    Use the Bot Framework Connector to send and receive activities.

Answer: A

Case Study 2 – Proseware, Inc.
You are developer for Proseware, Inc. You are developing an application that applies a set of governance policies for Prosware’s internal services, external services, and applications. The application will also provide a shared library for common functionality.
……

NEW QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that authentication events are triggered and processed according to the policy.
Solution: Ensure that sign out events have a subject prefix. Create an Azure Event Grid subscription that uses the subject Begins With filter.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
You need to ensure that authentication events are triggered and processed according to the policy.
Solution: Create a new Azure Event Grid topic and add a subscription for the events.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that the solution can meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service. Which Azure Application Insights data model should you use?

A.    an Application Insights metric
B.    an Application Insights dependency
C.    an Application Insights trace
D.    an Application Insights event

Answer: D

Mixed Questions
NEW QUESTION 20
You use ASP.NET Core MVC with ADO.NET to develop an application. You implement database sharing for the application by using Azure SQL Database. You establish communication links between the shard databases. You need to implement a strategy that allows a group of operations that are performed on multiple Azure databases to be rolled back on all databases if any of the operations fail.
Solution:
– Deploy a SQL database instance in an Azure Virtual Machine (VM).
– Establish linked servers to each Azure SQL Database instance from the SQL Server instance in the VM.
– Create a stored procedure in the VM that performs the update operations using a distributed transaction and commits them if successful.
– Run the SQL stored procedure on the SQL Server instance in the VM.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21
A company is creating an IoT solution for connecting to smart refrigerators. You plan to use the Azure IoT Hub Device Provisioning Service for this process. You need to provision the devices automatically. Which feature of Device Provisioning Service should you use?

A.    Template registration
B.    Device simulation
C.    Device registration and configuration
D.    Delivery and retry

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop
You develop a bot by using Language Understanding Intelligence Service (LUIS) and the MI Bot framework. You use LUIS m the Azure portal to optimize the bot. You review the utterances and determine that users are requesting time and venue information for events. You need to improve the prediction efficiency of the bot. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 23
HotSpot
You are developing an IoT solution. The solution requires bidirectional communication between a client .NET application and Azure IoT Hub. A .NET back-end application will connect to the IoT Hub to process information. You need to collect the values required for the back-end application to connect with the newly created IoT Hub. How should you complete the commands? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 24
You are developing an ASP.NET Core Web API web service. The web service uses Azure Application Insights for all telemetry and dependency tracking. The web service reads and writes data to a database other than Microsoft SQL Server. You need to ensure that dependency tracking works for calls to the third-party database. Which two Dependency Telemetry properties should you store in the database? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Telemetry.Context.Operation.Id
B.    Tetemetry.Context.Cloud.Rolelnstance
C.    Telemetry.Id
D.    Telemetry.ContextSession.Id
E.    Telemetry.Name

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 25
Your company’s Internet Information Services (IIS) web server for Windows Server hosts legacy hosts legacy ASP.NET web apps. The applications do not use the Application freights SDK or APIs. You install Application Insights on the Windows server running IE. You must use the Application Insights SDK to monitor the legacy web apps. You need to collect information about the legacy web apps. Which data class can you monitor?

A.    Dependencies
B.    Session
C.    Stack Dump
D.    Client Context

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
……


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Case Study 1 – Chatbot
You must develop a chatbot by using the Bot Builder SDK and Language Understanding Intelligence Service (LUIS). The chatbot must allow users to order food for pickup or delivery. The chatbot must meet the following requirements:
……

NEW QUESTION 1
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
You need to debug the user greeting issue. What should you use?

A.    Bot Framework Channel Inspector
B.    Bot Connector Service
C.    Azure Compute Emulator
D.    Azure Application Insights
E.    Bot Framework Emulator

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
……

Case Study 2 – Litware, Inc.
You are a developer for Litware, Inc., a SaaS company that provides a solution for managing employee expenses. The solution consists of an ASP.NET Core Web API project that is deployed as an Azure Web App.
……

NEW QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
You need to ensure the upload format issue is resolved. What code should you add at line RU14? (To answer, drag appropriate code fragments to the correct locations. Each code fragment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
You need to ensure that security requirements are met. What value should be used for the ConnectionString field on line DB03 in the Database class? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 3 – Proseware, Inc.
You are a developer for Proseware, Inc. You are developing an application that applies a set of governance policies for Proseware’s internal services, external services, and applications. The application will also provide a shared library for common functionality.
……

NEW QUESTION 13
You need to ensure that authentication events are triggered and processed according to the policy.
Solution: Create separate Azure Event Grid topics and subscriptions for sign-in and sign-out events.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
You need to resolve a notification latency issue. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Ensure that the Azure Function is using an App Service plan.
B.    Set Always On to false.
C.    Ensure that the Azure Function is set to use a consumption plan.
D.    Set Always On to true.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
……

Case Study 4 – Coho Winery
Coho Winery produces, bottles, and distributes a variety of wines globally. You are a developer implementing highly scalable and resilient applications to support online order processing by using Azure solutions.
……

NEW QUESTION 19
You need to meet the LabelMaker application security requirement.
Solution: Create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory service principal and assign it to the Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20
You need to trouble Shoot the order world flow. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Review the run history.
B.    Review the trigger history.
C.    Review the API connections.
D.    Review the activity log.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 21
……

Mixed Questions
NEW QUESTION 24
You have implemented code that uses elastic transactions spanning across three different Azure SQL Database logical servers. Database administrators report that some transactions take longer to complete than expected. You need to use the correct tool to monitor all the transactions originating from the elastic transaction implementation. Which tool should you use?

A.    Run the sys.dm_tran_active_transactions dynamic management view.
B.    Run the sys.dm_tran_current_snapshot dynamic management view.
C.    Run the sys.dm_tran_active_snapshot_database_transactions dynamic management.
D.    Use the dependencies section of Azure Applications Insights.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 25
A company is migrating an existing on-premises third-party website to Azure. The website is stateless. The company does not have access to the source code for the website. They do have the original installer. The number of visitors at the website vanes throughout the year. The on-premises infrastructure was resized to accommodate peaks but the extra capacity was not used. You need to implement a virtual machine scale set instance. What should you do?

A.    Use only default diagnostics metrics to trigger autoscaling.
B.    Create 100 autoscale settings per resource.
C.    Scale out by one instance when the average CPU usage of one of the instances is over 80 percent.
D.    Use Azure Monitor xo create autoscale settings using custom metrics.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26
You are developing an Azure Durable Function instance. You need to add a delay by using a durable timer. What type of function should you use?

A.    Webhook
B.    Orchestrator
C.    Client
D.    Activity

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 27
……


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Case Study – Best For You Organics Company
Best For You Organics Company is a global restaurant franchise that has multiple locations. The company wants to enhance user experiences and vendor integrations. The company plans to implement automated mobile ordering and delivery services.
……

NEW QUESTION 1
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a Microsoft Office 365 SMTP server.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
You need to implement the purchase requirement. What should you do?

A.    Use the Speech Server API to send the user’s voice and the Bot Framework RET API conversation operations to recognize intents.
B.    Use the Direct Line REST API to send the user’s and the Speech Service API to recognize internets.
C.    Use the Bot Framework REST API conversation operations to send the user’s voice and the Speech Service API to recognize internets.
D.    Use the Bot Framework REST API attachment operations to send the user’s voice and the Speech Service API to recognize internets.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
……

Mixed Questions
NEW QUESTION 10
You are creating an IoT solution using Azure Time Series Insights. You configure the environment to ensure that all data for the current year is available. What should you do?

A.    Set a value for the Data Retention time setting.
B.    Change the pricing tier.
C.    Add a disaster recovery (DR) strategy.
D.    Create a reference data set.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
You plan to use Azure Site Recovery to protect several on premises physical server workload. Each server workload is independent of the other. The workloads are stateless. You need to recommend a failover strategy to ensure that if the on premises data center fails, the workloads are available in Azure as quickly as possible. Which failover strategy should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Latest app-consistent
B.    Latest
C.    Latest processed
D.    Latest multi VM processed

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
Members of the finance department for a company review and make changes to a Microsoft Excel workbook that is hosted on OneDrive. The workbook contains projected costs and revenue for a project. You need to develop an Azure Function that ingests data from the modified workbook and places it into a Microsoft Word document. Which two objects should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    An Excel table output binding
B.    A group conversation subscription
C.    A group subscription
D.    An auth token input binding
E.    An Excel table input binding

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop
You have an on-premises network that includes a Microsoft SQL Server instance named SQL1. You create an Azure Logic App named App1. You need to ensure that App1 can query a database on SQL1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 14
HotSpot
You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a Service Bus queue. A rule already exists to scale up the App Service when the average queue length of unprocessed and valid queue messages is greater than 1000. You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not met. How should you configure the Scale rule? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 15
Your company has an on premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, computes intensive workload that performs financial risk modeling. You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch. You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
– Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?

A.    Low priority virtual machines.
B.    Burst able virtual machines.
C.    Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API.
D.    Basic A-series virtual machines.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
You are developing an app that references data which is shared across multiple Azure SQL databases. The app must guarantee transactional consistency for changes across several different sharding key values. You will to manage the transactions What should you implement?

A.    Distributed transactions coordinated by Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator (MSDTC).
B.    Elastic database transactions with horizontal partitioning.
C.    Server-coordinated transactions from a .NET application.
D.    Elastic database transactions with vertical partitioning.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
You have an Azure Service Bus. You need to implement a Service Bus queue that guarantees first-in-first-out (FIFO) delivery of messages. What should you do?

A.    Enable partitioning.
B.    Set the Max Size setting of the queue to 5 GB.
C.    Enable duplicate detection.
D.    Enable sessions.
E.    Set the Lock Duration setting to 10 seconds.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
……


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NEW QUESTION 550
An EIGRP routing table shows four paths to a destination each with a different metric, which feature can you implement to load balance traffic across all four paths?

A.    Feasible distance
B.    Variance
C.    Load
D.    Administrative distance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 551
Which two statements about traffic shaping are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Packets that exceed the configured threshold are dropped.
B.    Packets that exceed the configured threshold are remarked and sent.
C.    Packets that exceed the configured threshold are held in a buffer.
D.    It can be applied in the outbound direction only.
E.    It can be applied in the inbound and outbound directions.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 552
Which two statements about a point-to-point wan topology are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It uses a single router to route traffic between sites.
B.    It provides redundancy between the central office and branch offices.
C.    It is usually established over a dedicated connection.
D.    It provides direct connections between each router in the topology.
E.    It connects remote network through a single line.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 553
Which two QoS requirements are applied to interactive video traffic according to industry best practice? (Choose two.)

A.    Jitter less than 30 ms
B.    One way delay less than 400 ms
C.    Marking with mpls exp bits
D.    FIFO
E.    Packet loss less than 1

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 554
When troubleshooting an issue with an SVI, which three areas do you check? (Choose three.)

A.    Routing
B.    Gateway
C.    Encapsulation
D.    Frame size
E.    Interface
F.    Asic

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 555
What is the primary function of the southbound API?

A.    To communicate between network applications and switches and routes aon the network.
B.    To communicate between the sdn controller and switches and routers on the network.
C.    To communicate between the sdn controller and services and applications on the network.
D.    To communicate between the sdn controller and pcs on the network.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 556
For which type of connection is broadband PPPoE most appropriate?

A.    DSL
B.    GRE Tunel
C.    Satelitte
D.    PPTP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 557
Under which two scenarios does a port with BPDU guard enabled transition to the Err-disabled state? (Choose two.)

A.    When the port is a trunk port on a switch and it is connected to a trunk port on another switch.
B.    When the port is portfast enabled access port ona switch, and it is connected to an access port on another switch.
C.    When the port is an access port on a switch and it is connected to a PC.
D.    When the port is an acess port on a switch and it is connected to a Hub.
E.    When the port is on a pc and its connected to a server.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 558
Which three checks must you perform when troubleshooting eigrpv6 adjacencies? (Choose three.)

A.    Verify that IPv6 is enabled.
B.    Verify that the interface is up.
C.    Verify that an IPv4 address has been configured.
D.    Verify that auto summary is enabled.
E.    Verify that the router ID has been configured.
F.    Verify that the network command has been configurd.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 559
Which two tasks use OSPFv4 hello packets? (Choose two.)

A.    Requesting topology changes.
B.    Beginning neighbor discovery.
C.    Acknowledging message receipt.
D.    Sharing link state database.
E.    Performing DR election.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 560
Which type of data is ramissted between switches to elect the root bridge?

A.    BPDUs
B.    Packets
C.    Hellos
D.    Segments

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 561
Which information can the APIC-EM ACL path trace feature provide?

A.    All ACLs and aces along a path, regardless of a match.
B.    Only matching ACL names along a path.
C.    Matching aces only in the ACLs along a path.
D.    All ACEs in matching ACLs along a path.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 562
Which two characteristics of standard access list are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They can compare source and destination traffic against a permit or deny statement.
B.    They can be identified only with a number between 1 and 99.
C.    They must be identified with a number between 1 and 99 or 1300 and 1999.
D.    They cannot be used to identify traffic path.
E.    They can compare source traffic only against a permit or deny statement.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 563
Which purpose of the network command in the BGP configuration of a router is true?

A.    It advertises a valid network as local to the autonomous system of a router.
B.    It enables route advertisement in the BGP routing process on the router.
C.    It advertises any route in BGP with no additional configuration.
D.    It indicates whether a neighbor supports route refresh.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 564
What is the effect of the switch port voice vlan 20 command?

A.    It assigns the interface to a voice vlan.
B.    It configures the interface as an acces sport.
C.    It disaplys the voice vlan configuration of the interface.
D.    It configures priority tagging for voice traffic on vlan 20.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 565
On which port type is the spanning-tree port fast command supported without additional configuration?

A.    Layer 3 main interfaces
B.    Layer 3 subinterfaces
C.    Access ports
D.    Trunk ports

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 566
Which result occurs when you configure the switchport mode dynamic auto command on the switch port at both ends of a trunk link?

A.    Either switch port can initiate the trunk.
B.    The trunk forms immediately because both switch ports are configured for permanent trunking mode.
C.    The trunk fails to form because both switch ports fails to initiate trunking.
D.    Both switch ports actively form the trunk.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 567
Which two numbers are valid extended VLAN numbers? (Choose two.)

A.    1002
B.    1010
C.    4000
D.    4104
E.    5001

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 568
After you configure a new router to connect to a host through the gi0/0 port of the router, you log in to the router and observe that the new link is down, which action corrects the problem?

A.    Use a straight through cable between the host and R1.
B.    Use a roll over cable between the host and R1.
C.    Use a crossover calbe between the host and R1.
D.    Configure the host to use R1 as the default gateway.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 569
While troubleshooting the failure of an OSPFv3 Ethernet connection between router R1 and R2, you determine that the hello timer are mismatched and that R2 is configured with default settings, which command do you enter on R1 to correct the problem?

A.    R1(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 10
B.    R1(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 20
C.    R1(config-if)#ipv6 ospf hello-interval 20
D.    R1(config-if)#no ipv6 ospf hello-interval

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 570
……


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NEW QUESTION 391
Which action do you take to define the global authorization exception policy by using a Device Admin Policy Set?

A.    Configure the policy by using Proxy Sequence mode.
B.    Configure a rule-based condition in a policy set.
C.    Define the policy for each group of devices.
D.    Define the policy by configuring a standard profile.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 392
In the redirect URL authorization attribute, which Cisco ISE node acts as the web server when performing CWA?

A.    Administration
B.    Monitoring
C.    Policy Service
D.    pxGrid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 393
Which two protocols are supported with the Cisco IOS Device Sensor? (Choose two.)

A.    SNMP
B.    Cisco Discovery Protocol
C.    RADIUS
D.    LLDP
E.    NetFlow

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 394
What sends the redirect ACL that is configured in the authorization profile back to the Cisco WLC?

A.    Event
B.    Cisco-av-pair
C.    State attribute
D.    Class attribute

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 395
While troubleshooting a posture assessment issue on a Windows PC, the NAC Agent is not popping up as expected. Which two logs would help in isolating the issue? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco AnyConnect ISE posture logs
B.    NAC agent logs
C.    Dart bundle
D.    Cisco ISE profiler.log file
E.    Cisco ISE ise-psc.log file

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 396
A manager of Company A is hosting a conference. Conference participants use a code on the AUP page of the hot-spot guest portal. Which code must the manager create on Cisco ISE before the meeting?

A.    user code
B.    pass code
C.    access code
D.    registration code

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 397
Which command is needed to enable dotlx globally on the switch?

A.    aaa authentication dotlx default group radius
B.    dotlx system-auth-control
C.    dotlx pae authenticator
D.    authentication port-control auto

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 398
A security engineer must provision dynamic TrustSec classifications. Which two classification options must the engineer select to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    interface
B.    802.1X
C.    MAB
D.    IP subnet
E.    VLAN

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 399
A wireless deployment must check guest device compliance before allowing access to the network. Which type of guest deployment is needed to allow the Client Provisioning portal?

A.    central web authentication
B.    sponsored
C.    hotspot
D.    self-registered

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 400
Which characteristic of an 3GT enforcement policy is true?

A.    An SGFW has an implicit permit at the beginning.
B.    An SGFW has an implicit deny at the end.
C.    An SGACL has an implicit deny at the end.
D.    An SGACL has an explicit deny at the beginning.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 401
When configuring a BYOD portal, which two tasks must be completed? (Choose two.)

A.    Enable policy services.
B.    Create endpoint identity groups.
C.    Customize device portals.
D.    Create a client provisioning portal.
E.    Create external identity sources.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 402
A customer has implemented a BYOD policy to allow employees to use personal devices on the corporate network. Which two methods can an employee use to add their devices to the network? (Choose two.)

A.    Client Information Signaling
B.    My Device Portal
C.    Client Handshake Authentication
D.    Helpdesk Registration
E.    Native Supplicants

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 403
Which type of probe is required when using a Cisco IOS Sensor-enabled network switch?

A.    Network Scan probe
B.    HTTP probe
C.    RADIUS probe
D.    NetFlow probe

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 404
An organization is deciding between single or dual SSID solutions for onboarding BYOD devices. Which item must be considered before selecting the dual SSID solution?

A.    Wireless coverage is reduced with dual SSIDs.
B.    Additional access points are required for dual SSIDs.
C.    Dedicated controllers are required for dual SSIDs.
D.    The second SSID adds channel overhead.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 405
Which two values are compared by the binary comparison function in authentication that is based on Active Directory? (Choose two.)

A.    subject alternative name and the common name
B.    user-presented password hash and a hash stored in Active Directory
C.    user-presented certificate and a certificate stored in Active Directory
D.    MS-CHAPv2 provided machine credentials and credentials stored in Active Directory

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 406
A new consultant must be granted network access for only six months. Which type of ISE default guest account must be used to allow this access?

A.    contractor
B.    temporary
C.    employee
D.    annual

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 407
Which two statements about RADIUS are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813.
B.    It encrypts the payload.
C.    It encrypts the password only.
D.    It uses TCP ports 1812 and 1813.
E.    It separates authorization and authentication functions.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 408
Which method of registering devices on the BYOD My Devices Portal requires that the user have a supplicant installed?

A.    MAB
B.    Single SSID
C.    Web authentication
D.    Dual SSIDs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 409
Which two options are advantages of using the Cisco IOS Device Sensor as compared to other profiling probes? (Choose two.)

A.    uses RADIUS authentication messages to send gathered data to a Cisco ISE server
B.    provides DHCP information to a Cisco ISE server without using an IP helper address
C.    reduces the amount of traffic going to a Cisco ISE server
D.    collects switch CPU and RAM usage for monitoring purposes
E.    replaces all the other profiling probes

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 410
……


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NEW QUESTION 400
You configure a boot from SAN multipath environment that uses an EMC storage array. The host is registered on the array. Other hosts that have the same WWPN also appear to logged in. Which action resolves the issue?

A.    Remove the local disks that are connected to the blade.
B.    Ensure that the storage array is cable correctly.
C.    Explicitly register all the paths on the storage array.
D.    Configure that LUN masking is applied correctly.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 401
In Cisco UCS Central you have a certificate that has the status set to Not Yet Valid. Which scenario could cause the issue?

A.    The time is incorrectly synchronized.
B.    The trusted point uses a bundled certificate that has a minimum depth of 10.
C.    The certificate field is empty.
D.    The certificate is issued by a different trusted point.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 402
You have a Cisco APIC environment. An administrator configures the administrator roles for managing a service configuration. You discover that some tenants can import device clusters but cannot use the device clusters. What should you do to ensure that the tenants can use the device clusters?

A.    Change the ready-only access permission for the tenants to read-write.
B.    Grant the tenants the nw-svc-device privilege.
C.    Grant the tenant the nw-svc-devshared privilege.
D.    Grant the tenant the nw-svc-policy privilege.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 403
Refer to the following words:
ID is duplicated assigned
You see the fault when configuring a global ID pool on Cisco UCS Central. Which scenario could cause the issue?

A.    Global service profiles consume IDs from the blocks that have an assigned ID range qualifier.
B.    The same ID is assigned to the service profiles in two registered domains.
C.    The same ID is defined in Cisco UCS Central and Cisco UCS Manager.
D.    The same IP address is configured in two registered domains.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 404
You have an FEX connected with two uplinks. When you attempt to set the max-link parameter to 4 for the FEX, you receive an error message. Which issue could cause the error?

A.    There are too few links.
B.    The links are configures as port channels.
C.    The FEX is offline.
D.    The links must be domain prior to changing the parameters.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 405
The external routes are unreachable from the fabric in a Cisco ACI environment. What should you do?

A.    Configure BGP for IPv6.
B.    Configure BGP confederation.
C.    Apply the BGP policy map to the interface.
D.    Enable MP-BGP in the fabric.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 406
Refer to the exhibit:

What does the output in the Scope column indicate?

A.    the fabric zone to which the rule applies
B.    the VRF tenant to which the rule applies
C.    the VRF segment to which the rule applies
D.    the EPG to which the rule apples

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 407
Refer to the exhibit:

A Cisco UCS Director appliance that has the Cisco UCS Director Bare Metal Agent installed fails to boot from the PXE TFTP and the Bare Metal Agents are running. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?

A.    Restart the TFTP service.
B.    Restart the Cisco UCS Director Bare Metal Agent services.
C.    Reinstall the Cisco UCS Director Bare Metal Agent.
D.    Reinstall TFTP.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 408
Refer to the exhibit:

What should you do to release the lock on the device alias database?

A.    Change the device alias mode to enhanced.
B.    Ensure that the zone alias is configured.
C.    Disable the fabric distribution.
D.    Commit the pending changes.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 409
Which two maintenance policy options can you use to specify when the Cisco UCS Manager deploys a service profile change? (Choose two.)

A.    on the next reboot
B.    when acknowledged by any user
C.    immediately
D.    when acknowledged by a user with root privileges
E.    when acknowledged by a user with administrator privileges

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 410
VM-1 and VM-3 are in different EPGs but in the same BD. Which statement about the communication between VM-1 and VM-3 is true?

A.    The packet must transverse a Layer 3 interface.
B.    The flow uses unencapsulated VLANs.
C.    The flow must transverse the spine.
D.    The flow stays local to the leaf switch.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 411
You have a node in a decommissioned state. What could cause the issue?

A.    The node was disabled by the user.
B.    The node is unreachable.
C.    The node is in a transient state.
D.    The node cannot join the fabric

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 412
Drag and Drop
Refer to the exhibit:

Boot from SAN fails. The host fails to detect the LUNs. You must resolve the issue. Drag and drop the VVWPNs on the left to the correct zones on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 413
……


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NEW QUESTION 194
Which two services does a Cisco APIC provide during the startup process of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)

A.    bootstrap configuration
B.    EIGRP
C.    CDP
D.    DNS
E.    DHCP

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 195
Which command set is a valid Cisco Unified Fabric port configuration on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch?

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 196
Which description of the connection between two fabric interconnects in a cluster configuration is true?

A.    must be connected directly by using any ports
B.    must be connected virtually
C.    must be connected directly by using Ethernet cables between L1-to-L2 and L2-to-L1 high-availability ports
D.    must be connected directly by using Ethernet cables between L1-to-L1 and L2-to-L2 high-availability ports

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 197
Which option does a Cisco UCS B-Series half width blade server support?

A.    maximum of two local hard drives
B.    RAID 10 for SAS drives
C.    PCle Fibre Channel adapters
D.    integrated optical drives

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 198
You create a workflow lo deploy a service profile to a blade server. After you execute the workflow, you notice that the resulting service request is in a blocked state. What could cause the issue?

A.    The request is waiting for approval.
B.    The request is waiting to be executed at a later time.
C.    A task fails to execute correctly.
D.    The task library required by the workflow is unavailable.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 199
Which type of port is used to connect and communicate with a SAN storage device on a Cisco MDS switch?

A.    Fibre Channel
B.    QSFP
C.    Serial
D.    Ethernet

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 200
Which description of the APIC REST API is true?

A.    uses Java to access the Cisco ACI fabric
B.    allows administrators to programmatically configure objects
C.    uses SNMP for POST and GET
D.    allows administrators to retrieve configurations in the CSV format

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 201
Which description of the value of an API is true?

A.    provides the software used by developers to program applications
B.    controls specific cloud resources and their distribution
C.    defines the code used to program an application
D.    helps developers by simplifying the integration of applications

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 202
Which description of a VMM domain profile is true?

A.    specifies connectivity policies that enable Cisco AC1 to connect to a virtual machine manager
B.    associates a physical network to a virtual network
C.    specifies the credentials used to connect the Cisco ACI to a virtual machine controller
D.    associates virtual machines in multiple domains

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 203
What is one benefit of running Cisco FabricPath as compared to STP?

A.    uses different control protocols for unicast forwarding and multicast forwarding
B.    leams all MAC addresses in the network unconditionally
C.    blocks redundant links
D.    allows forwarding of frames along all available equal cost paths

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 204
……


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NEW CASE STUDY — Fabrikam, Inc. (NEW QUESTION 318 – NEW QUESTION 330)
Background
Fabrikam is a manufacturing company. You manage an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server environment as well as an Exchange Online environment that is set up as a hybrid environment for the Fabrikam.com and devfabrikam.com domains. The company recently merged with Tailspin Toys. They have also bought another company named Contoso.Ltd. There are no plans to merge with Contoso.Ltd. as that company’s resources will remain separate from Fabrikam, Inc.
……

NEW QUESTION 318
You need to implement the integration between Active Directory and Office 365 for the new domain.
Solution: Create a tenant for contoso.com. Perform an Express installation of Azure AD Connect.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-express

NEW QUESTION 319
You need to implement the integration between Active Directory and Office 365 for the new domain.
Solution: Create a tenant for contoso.com. Perform a Custom installation of Azure AD Connect.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-custom

NEW QUESTION 320
You need to implement the integration between Active Directory and Office 365 for the new domain.
Solution: Create a tenant for tailspintoys.com. Perform a Custom installation of Azure AD Connect.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 321
You need to request a certificate for AD FS. Which two options should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Subject Alternate Names of fs.devfabrikam.com and enterpriseregistration.devfabrikam.com
B.    Subject name of fs.fabrikam.com
C.    Subject Alternate Names of fs.fabrikam.com and enterpriseregistration.fabrikam.com
D.    Subject Alternate Names of fs.windows.net and enterpriseregistration.windows.net
E.    Subject name of fs.devfabrikam.com

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 322
You need to implement the integration between Active Directory and Office 365 for the new domain.
Solution: Create a tenant for tailspintoys.com. Perform an Express Installation of Azure AD Connect.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 323
You need to troubleshoot issues that Test.User1 reports. What should you do?

A.    Run the Microsoft Support and Recovery Assistant for Office 365.
B.    Repair the Office ProPlus installation.
C.    Run the hybrid environment free/busy troubleshooter.
D.    Run the Microsoft Office Configuration Analyzer Tool.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-gb/help/10092/troubleshooting-free-busy-issues-in-exchange-hybrid-environment

NEW QUESTION 324
Drag and Drop
You need to configure DNS for the AD FS deployment. Which DNS entries should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate DNS entries to the correct topologies. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 325
Hotspot
You need to design the SSO solution for the development. How should you configure the environment? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 326
……

NEW CASE STUDY — A.Datum (NEW QUESTION 331 – NEW QUESTION 341)
Background
A.Datum Corporation is a manufacturing company that produces widgets. The company has a subsidiary that operates under the name Fabrikam, Inc. You are the Office 365 administrator for A.Datum. The company is in the process of moving to a cloud-only computing environment. You purchase a new Office 365 subscription. You create Office 365 groups for each department at A.Datum and add the appropriate employees to each group.
……

NEW QUESTION 331
You need to ensure that partner organizations can verify the authenticity of email from adatum.com.
Solution: You create and configure a DLP U.S. PII Data policy.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 332
You need to ensure that partner organizations can verify the authenticity of email from adatum.com.
Solution: You create and configure a classification label.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 333
The sales manager wants a resource configured in Office 365. You need to configure scheduling services. What should you configure?

A.    SharePoint Online site with a notification web part.
B.    Microsoft Flow using the StaffHub to Office 365 Outlook template.
C.    StaffHub with a connection to Kronos.
D.    Microsoft Teams with a Kronos channel.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 334
You need to configure the environment to process all tweets for the marketing department. What should you configure?

A.    Microsoft Flow using the Twitter to SharePoint template.
B.    Microsoft SharePoint Online site collection with a notification web part.
C.    Microsoft Exchange Server on-premises public folder.
D.    Microsoft Teams channel with a SharePoint connector.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://flow.microsoft.com/en-us/galleries/public/templates/e78571e5c70e4806a18eeacba5a897c8/save-tweets-that-include-a-specific-hashtag-to-a-sharepoint-list/

NEW QUESTION 335
You need to configure the collaboration environment for the ADatum sales employees. What should you configure?

A.    Microsoft Flow with a Twitter connector.
B.    Microsoft StaffHub with a GitHub feed.
C.    Microsoft Teams with a Yammer connector.
D.    Microsoft Teams channel with a Twitter connector.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 336
You need to configure Skype for Business Online. Which two options should you choose? (Choose two.)

A.    Assign sales employees an Online Plan 2 user subscription license.
B.    Assign A.Datum employees an Online Plan 2 user subscription license.
C.    Set the value of the presence privacy mode setting to Automatically display presence information.
D.    Set the value of the presence privacy mode setting to Display presence information only to user’s contacts.
E.    Assign A.Datum employees an Online Plan 1 user subscription license.
F.    Assign sales employees an Online Plan 1 user subscription license.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 337
……

NEW QUESTION 342
You administer your company’s Office 365 tenant. The tenant is used for email and Microsoft SharePoint Online. The security policy requirements for the company are:
– User passwords must expire after 60 days.
– Complex passwords are required.
You need to ensure compliance with the security policy. What should you do?

A.    In the Security & Compliance center, configure threat management.
B.    Run the Microsoft Azure PowerShell cmdlet Set-MsolPasswordPolicy.
C.    In the Security & Compliance Center, configure data governance.
D.    Run the Microsoft Azure PowerShell cmdlet Set-MsoIUserPassword.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 343
You are the system administrator for a company named Fabrikam, Inc. You implement Office 365. You need to modify settings for the Office 365 tenant. Which action can you perform?

A.    Modify the Microsoft Teams URL.
B.    Modify the Microsoft StaffHub URL.
C.    Remove the Fabrikam.onmicrosoft.com domain name.
D.    Modify the custom domain of Fabrikam.com.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 344
You deploy Office 365. You need to activate Rights Management. Which method should you use?

A.    the Set-KdsConfiguration Windows PowerShell cmdlet
B.    the Enable-MsoIDevice Windows PowerShell cmdlet
C.    the Microsoft Azure classic portal
D.    the Enable-AadrmDevicePlatform Windows PowerShell cmdlet

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/aadrm/enable-aadrmdeviceplatform?view=azureipps

NEW QUESTION 345
Drag and Drop
You are the system administrator for a company. You plan to move users email to Office 365. You add a custom domain for the company to Office 365. You need to configure the new Office 365 tenant and move ownership of the on-premises DNS zone to Office 365. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 346
Hotspot
You deploy a new Office 365 tenant for Contoso, Ltd. You configure Office 365 to use contoso.com domain. All users are using Office 365 ProPlus. Users report that authentication is slow when they launch Office 2016 desktop applications on their computers. You need to create a DNS record to optimize authentication time. How should you configure the DNS record? (To answer, select the appropriate values in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://support.office.com/en-ie/article/what-s-the-purpose-of-the-additional-office-365-cname-record-a5518505-eea9-4855-a940-0e0d02986452

NEW CASE STUDY — Contoso, Ltd. (NEW QUESTION 347 – NEW QUESTION 348)
Background
You are the system administrator for a manufacturing company named Contoso, Ltd. The company has offices in Chicago, Seattle, and Dallas. Contoso’s sales department is located in Chicago. The IT department is located in Seattle. The sales and IT departments use Microsoft Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, and OneDrive for Business. All employees in the sales department are in a group named Sales-Users. Employee user accounts are added and removed manually to this group as needed.
……

NEW QUESTION 347
You need to resolve the issue for User1. What should you do?

A.    Run the Office 365 Client Performance Analyzer.
B.    Open a service request in the Office 365 admin center.
C.    Reset the account password for the user.
D.    Create a new ticket with Microsoft Premier Support.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 348
You need to monitor the tailspintoys.com user accounts. What should you do?

A.    Run the following Windows PowerShell cmdlet: Get-ServiceDeliveryReport.
B.    Access the SCOM console.
C.    Access the Service health dashboard on the Office 365 admin center.
D.    Run the following Windows PowerShell cmdlet: Get-HistoricalSearch
E.    Access the RSS feed for Office 365 service health.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 349
……


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Case Study 1 – Fabrikam
The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust relationships between the forests. corp.fabrikam.com is a production forest that contains identities used for internal user and computer authentication. rd.fabrikam.com is used by the research and development (R&D) department only.
……

NEW QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B.    Use SQL Server transactional replication.
C.    Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage.
D.    Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a strategy for the web tier of WebApp1. The solution must minimize. What should you recommend?

A.    Create a runbook that resizes virtual machines automatically to a smaller size outside of business hours.
B.    Configure the Scale Up settings for a web app.
C.    Deploy a virtual machine scale set that scales out on a 75 percent CPU threshold.
D.    Configure the Scale Out settings for a web app.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?

A.    Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
B.    Configure Azure Site Recovery.
C.    Configure GEO replication of the database.
D.    Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a US-base finance service company that has a main office in New York and a office in San Francisco. Contoso hosts a business-critical payment processing system in its New York data center. The system has three tiers a front-end web app a middle-tier API and a back-end data store implemented as a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
……

NEW QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
B.    Long-term retention
C.    A Recovery Services vault
D.    Azure Backup Server

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    the availability zones
B.    an availability set
C.    the Premium App Service plan
D.    the Isolated App Server plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution for the collection of security logs the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure Notification Hubs
B.    the Azure Diagnostics agent
C.    Azure Event Hubs
D.    the Azure Log Analytics agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
……

Mixed Questions
NEW QUESTION 14
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application an on-premises data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows Server 2016. The database server will not move to Azure. A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions. The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network named VNET1. You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application to a web app hosted in a Premium App Service plan.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application an on-premises data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows Server 2016. The database server will not move to Azure. A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions. The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network named VNET1. You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application to a web app hosted in an Isolated App Service plan on VNET1.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
You plan to deploy a payroll system to Azure. The payroll system will use Azure virtual machines that run SUSE Linux Enterprise Server and Windows. You need to recommend a business continuity solution for the payroll system. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Minimize costs.
– Provide business continuity if an Azure region fails.
– Provide a recovery time objective (RTO) of 30 minutes.
– Provide a recovery point objective (RPO) of five minutes.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manage (DPM)
B.    Unmanaged disks that use geo-redundant storage (GRS)
C.    Azure Site Recovery
D.    Azure Backup

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop
You have standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet. You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails. Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? (To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 18
HotSpot
You plan to deploy logical Azure SQL Database servers to The East US Azure region and the Wen US Azure region. Each server will contain 20 database accessed by a different user who reads in a different on premises location. The databases will be configured to use active geo-replication. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirement:
– Restricts user access to each database.
– Restricts network access to each database based on each user’s respective location.
– Ensures that the databases remain accessible from down applications if the local Azure region fails.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 19
You use Azure virtual machines to run a custom application that uses an Azure SQL database on the back end. The IT apartment at your company recently enabled forced tunneling. Since the configuration change, developers have noticed degraded performance when they access the database. You need to recommend a solution to minimize latency when accessing the database. The solution must minimize costs. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure SQL Database Managed instance
B.    Azure virtual machines that run Microsoft SQL Server servers
C.    Always On availability groups
D.    Virtual network service endpoint

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 20
You need to recommend a solution to generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource deployment in your subscription. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure Activity Log
B.    Azure Monitor Action Groups
C.    Azure Advisor
D.    Azure Monitor Metrics

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21
……


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NEW QUESTION 947
Which two statements about normal-range VLANs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    You can delete VLANs 1002 through 1005 in transparent mode only.
B.    The vlan.dat file is stored in RAM and copied to the NVRAM when you save the configuration.
C.    Configurations are saved in the vlan.dat file.
D.    You can add, modify, and remove configurations in VTP server mode and VTP client mode.
E.    You can add VLANs in VTP server mode.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 948
Which three statements about extended VLANs are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The lowest extended VLAN number is 1006.
B.    The lowest extended VLAN number is 1002.
C.    Any VLAN ID can be used as an extended VLAN.
D.    They are recognized only by VTP version 3.
E.    They are propagated by VTP by default.
F.    They require the extended system ID to be enabled on the device.

Answer: ADF

NEW QUESTION 949
Which command must be configured on the physical ports of a Layer 3 EtherChannel?

A.    ip address <subnet mask>
B.    switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
C.    no switchport
D.    switchport mode access

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 950
Which feature can you enable on your network to most effectively limit unknown traffic?

A.    DHCP packet rate limiting
B.    unicast storm control
C.    multicast storm control
D.    broadcast storm control
E.    ARP packet rate limiting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 951
Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    All outgoing traffic without a VLAN tag is tagged with the native VLAN.
B.    All untagged traffic that arrives on the device is placed into the native VLAN.
C.    The VLAN tag is stripped from all incoming traffic that matches the native VLAN.
D.    They are propagated through VTP.
E.    The default native VLAN is VLAN 11.
F.    All incoming traffic that matches the native VLAN is dropped at the switch.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 952
Which two TLVs are mandatory in LLDP advertisements? (Choose two.)

A.    Platform TLV
B.    System Capability TLV
C.    Network Policy TLV
D.    System Name TLV
E.    Native VLAN TLV

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 953
Which statement about the connection of two switches with several links using LACP link aggregation on IOS is true?

A.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is off.
B.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is on.
C.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is active.
D.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is passive.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 954
Which two statements about configuring a voice VLAN on a switch port are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The port must be operating in untrusted mode.
B.    Tagged traffic is not supported.
C.    It must be configured separately from the VLAN that carries data traffic.
D.    If the port is trusted, data traffic that passes through the Cisco IP Phone maintains its QoS values.
E.    The port must be operating in trusted mode.
F.    Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled on the switch port.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 955
Which statement about SPAN functionality for an EtherChannel group is true?

A.    It can be configured as a SPAN source or a SPAN destination port.
B.    It can be configured as a SPAN source but not as a SPAN destination port.
C.    It can be configured as a SPAN destination but not as a SPAN source port.
D.    It cannot be configured as a SPAN source or a SPAN destination port.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 956
How does the Spanning Tree Protocol determine path cost?

A.    interface hop count
B.    interface reliability
C.    interface bandwidth
D.    interface load
E.    interface delay

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 957
Drag and Drop

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 958
If EtherChannel guard is configured on a device, which result happens when the device detects a misconfiguration on a connected device?

A.    Spanning tree is disabled for the VLANs associated with the EtherChannel.
B.    The port generates a syslog message.
C.    The EtherChannel configuration is removed from the running configuration of the device.
D.    The port is error disabled.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 959
Which two options are benefits of using VSS for chassis virtualization? (Choose two.)

A.    It supports GLBP to balance VSS traffic.
B.    It provides multiple points of management for redundancy and improved support.
C.    It uses a single database to manage configuration for multiple switches.
D.    It provides a single point of management for improved efficiency.
E.    It requires only one gateway per VLAN.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 960
What happens if an interface within channel group is configured as SPAN destination?

A.    Portchannel will forward traffic to source SPAN.
B.    It will not be operational.
C.    The link will be in error-disable.
D.    The interface will be removed from the channel group.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 961
Which feature is new in RPVST+?

A.    BackboneFast is implemented.
B.    UplinkFast is implemented.
C.    Only the root bridge sends configuration BPDUs.
D.    All ports can generate and send BPDUs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 962
……


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NEW QUESTION 740
Which types of LSAs are present in the stub area?

A.    LSA type 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B.    LSA type 1, 2 and 3
C.    LSA type 3 and 5
D.    LSA type 1 and 2

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 741
Which action is the most efficient way to handle route feedback when converting a RIPv2 network to OSPF?

A.    Implement route tags.
B.    Implement IP prefix lists.
C.    Implement route maps with access lists.
D.    Implement distribute lists.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 742
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote sites, but no OSPF adjacencies come up. Which two actions are solutions for this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    router#show memory allocating-process table
B.    router#show memory dead
C.    router#show memory processor statistics
D.    router#show memory summary
E.    router#show memory events

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 743
Which statements best describes the following two OSPF commands, which are used to summarize routes?
area 0 range 192.168.110.0 255.255.0.0
summary-address 192.168.110.0 255.255.0.0

A.    The area range command defines the area where the network resides.
The summary-address command enables autosummanzation.
B.    The area range command defines the area where the network resides.
The summary-address command summanzes a subnet for all areas.
C.    The area range command specifies the area where the subnet resides and summarizes it to other areas.
The summary-address command summarizes external routes.
D.    The area range command summarizes subnets for a specific area.
The summary-address command summaries a subnet for all areas.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 744
Which two actions are common methods for migrating a network from one protocol to another? (Choose two.)

A.    redistributing routes from the current routing protocol to the new routing protocol
B.    removing the current routing protocol and implementing the new routing protocol
C.    changing the relative administrative distances of the two routing protocols
D.    changing the network IP addresses and bringing up the new IP addresses using the new routing protocol
E.    disabling IP routing globally and implementing the new routing protocol

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 745
A network administrator is attempting to configure IP SLA to allow one time stamp to be logged when a packet arrives on the interface and one time stamp to be logged when a packet leaves the interface. Which IP SLA accuracy tool enables this functionality?

A.    Trap
B.    RTT
C.    Responder
D.    Trigger

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 746
Which two types of traffic can benefit from LLQ? (Choose two.)

A.    email
B.    voice
C.    telnet
D.    video
E.    file transfer

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 747
Refer to the exhibit:
access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list deny any
Which command us used to control the type of routes that are processed in incoming route updates?

A.    passive-interface
B.    distribute-list 1 out
C.    distribute-list 1 in
D.    ip vrf forwarding

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 748
A network engineer is configuring two dedicated Internet connections within the Internet module. One connection is the primary connection to all wired business communications, while the other is the primary connection for all customer wireless traffic. If one of the links goes down, the affected traffic needs to be redirected to the redundant link. Which current technology should be deployed to monitor the scenario?

A.    IP SLA
B.    MMC
C.    IP SAA
D.    PBR

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 749
Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)

A.    IPsec encryption not supported with statically addressed spokes.
B.    It requires full-mesh connectivity on the network.
C.    It uses NHRP to create a mapping database of spoke addresses.
D.    Multicast traffic is not supported.
E.    It supports dynamic addresses for spokes in a hub-and-spoke VPN topology.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 750
Which two LSA types were introduced to support OSPF for IPv6? (Choose two.)

A.    type 9
B.    type 10
C.    type 5
D.    type 7
E.    type 8

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 751
Users were moved from the local DHCP server to the remote corporate DHCP server. After the move, none of the users were able to use the network. Which two issues will prevent this setup from working properly? (Choose two.)

A.    Auto-QoS is blocking DHCP traffic.
B.    The DHCP server IP address configuration is missing locally.
C.    802.1X is blocking DHCP traffic.
D.    The broadcast domain is too large for proper DHCP propagation.
E.    The route to the new DHCP server is missing.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 752
Refer to the exhibit:
Router# show processes cpu sorted
Router# show processes memory sorted
Based on Cisco best practice, which statement about the output is true?

A.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before allocating additional memory and CPU usage to processes on an IOS router in production.
B.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before executing any configuration commands on an IOS router in production.
C.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before executing any debug commands on an IOS router in production.
D.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before executing other show commands on an IOS router in production.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 753
……


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NEW QUESTION 381
Users have been reporting unusual automated phone calls, including names and phone numbers, that appear to come from devices internal to the company. What of the following should the systems administrators do to BEST address this problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Add an ACL to the Firewall to block VoIP.
B.    Change the settings on the phone system to use SIP-TLS.
C.    Have the phones download new configuration over TFTP.
D.    Enable QoS configuration on the phone VLAN.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 382
A network engineer is upgrading the network perimeter and installing a new firewall, IDS, and external edge router. The IDS is reporting elevated UDP traffic and the Internal Routers are reporting high utilization. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A.    Reconfigure the firewall to block external UDP traffic.
B.    Establish a security baseline on the IDS.
C.    Block echo reply traffic at the firewall.
D.    Modify the edge router to not forward broadcast traffic

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 383
An engineer needs to provide access to company resources for several offshore contractors. The contractors require:
– Access to a number of applications, including internal websites.
– Access to database data and the ability to manipulate it.
– The ability to log into Linux and Windows servers remotely.
Which of the following remote access technologies are the BEST choices to provide all of this access securely? (Choose two.)

A.    VTC
B.    VRRP
C.    VLAN
D.    VDI
E.    VPN
F.    Telnet

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 384
An administrator has noticed mobile devices from an adjacent company on the corporate wireless network. Malicious activity is being reported from those devices. To add another layer of security in an enterprise environment an administrator wants to add contextual authentication to allow users to access enterprise resources only while present in corporate buildings. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?

A.    Port security.
B.    Rogue device detection
C.    Bluetooth
D.    GPS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 385
A security consultant is improving the physical security of a sensitive site and takes pictures of the unbranded building to include in the report. Two weeks later, the security consultant misplaces the phone, which only has one hour of charge left on it. The person who finds the phone removes the MicroSD card in an attempt to discover the owner to return it. The person extracts the following data from the phone and EXIF data from some files:
– DCIM images folder
– Audio books folder
– Torrents
– My TAN xls file
– Consultancy HR Manual doc file
– Camera: SM-G950F
– Exposure time: 1/60 s
– Location: 3500 Lacey Road USA
Which of the following BEST describes the security problem?

A.    MicroSD is not encrypted and also contains personal data.
B.    MicroSD contains a mixture of personal and work data.
C.    MicroSD is nor encrypted and contains geotagging information.
D.    MicroSD contains pirated software and is not encrypted.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 386
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated that all web-based applications the company uses are required to be hosted on the newest stable operating systems and application stack. Additionally, a monthly report must be generated and provided to the audit department. Which of the following security tools should a security analyst use to provide the BEST information?

A.    Protocol analyzer
B.    Network enumerator
C.    Penetration testing platform
D.    Vulnerability scanner
E.    GRC software

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 387
During the deployment of a new system, the implementation team determines that APIs used to integrate the new system with a legacy system are not functioning properly. Further investigation shows there is a misconfigured encryption algorithm used to secure data transfers between systems. Which of the following should the project manager use to determine the source of the defined algorithm in use?

A.    Code repositories.
B.    Security requirements traceability matrix.
C.    Software development life cycle.
D.    Data design diagram.
E.    Roles matrix.
F.    Implementation guide.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 388
As part of an organization’s compliance program, administrators must complete a hardening checklist and note any potential improvements. The process of noting potential improvements in the checklist is MOST likely driven by ____.

A.    the collection of data as part of the continuous monitoring program
B.    adherence to policies associated with incident response
C.    the organization’s software development life cycle
D.    changes in operating systems or industry trends

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 389
A protect manager is working with a team that is tasked to develop software applications in a structured environment and host them in a vendor’s cloud-based Infrastructure. The organization will maintain responsibility for the software but wit not manage the underlying server applications. Which of the following does the organization plan to leverage?

A.    SaaS
B.    PaaS
C.    IaaS
D.    Hybrid cloud
E.    Network virtualization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 390
A security engineer has been hired to design a device that will enable the exfiltration of data from within a well-defended network perimeter ding an authorized test. The device must bypass all firewalls and NIDS place as well as allow in the upload of commands from a cent, allied command and control server. The total cost of the deuce must be kept to a minimum in case the device is discovered doing an assessment. Which of the following tools should the engineer load onto the device being designed?

A.    Custom firmware with routing key generation.
B.    Automatic MITM proxy.
C.    TCP beacon broadcast software.
D.    Reverse shell endpoint listener.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 391
A security incident responder discovers an attacker has gained access to a network and has overwritten key system files with backdoor software. The server was reimaged and patched offline. Which of the following tools should be implemented to detect similar attacks?

A.    Vulnerability scanner
B.    TPM
C.    Host-based firewall
D.    File integrity monitor
E.    NIPS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 392
The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict Pll security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used?

A.    Avoid
B.    Mitigate
C.    Transfer
D.    Accept

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 393
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NEW QUESTION 400
You are planning to create a virtual network that has a scale set that contains six virtual machines (VMs). A monitoring solution on a different network will need access to the VMs inside the scale set. You need to define public access to the VMs.
Solution: Use Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to connect to the VM in the scale set.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Public IP addresses are necessary because they provide the load balanced entry point for the virtual machines in the scale set. The public IP address will route traffic to the appropriate virtual machines in the scale set.
https://mitra.computa.asia/articles/msdn-virtual-machine-scale-sets-it-really-about-protecting-your-applications-performance

NEW QUESTION 401
Your company has deployed several virtual machines (VMs) on-premises and to Azure. Azure Express Route has been deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity. Several VMs are exhibiting network connectivity issues. You need to analyze the network traffic to determine whether packets are being allowed or denied to the VMs.
Solution: Use Azure Network Watcher to run IP flow verify to analyze the network traffic.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to analyze the data at a higher level. Note: You can install and configure the Operations Management Suite (OMS) and Dependency Agents on all VMs. Use the Wire Data solution in Azure Log Analytics to analyze the network traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-wire-data

NEW QUESTION 402
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure Function to run the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
It is better to run the legacy application in a VM.

NEW QUESTION 403
Your company uses Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) to secure several Azure App Service Web and API applications. The applications are used by company employees and allow single sign-on (SSO). The applications must allow external users to sign-in. The external users must be managed the same way as employees and allow the external users to be added to the same employee user groups. You need to enable the external user sign-in. What should you do?

A.    Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the “Enable single sign on” option.
B.    Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use pass-through authentication and select the “Enable single sign-on” option.
C.    Enable and configure Azure AD business-to-consumer (B2C) Multi-Factor Authentication.
D.    Enable and configure Azure AD business-to-business (B2B) collaboration.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure AD B2C supports single sign-on. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) B2C integrates directly with Azure Multi-Factor Authentication so that you can add a second layer of security to sign-up and sign-in experiences in your consumer-facing applications.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-b2c/active-directory-b2c-reference-mfa

NEW QUESTION 404
A company runs virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. Some VMs are hosted in a virtual network in the West Central US region. Other VMs are hosted in a virtual network in the West US 2 region. Each virtual network has its own IP address range. The virtual networks are not integrated. You need to ensure that databases in the virtual networks can replicate data from one region to the other. The solution must minimize effort required. Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Implement virtual network peering.
B.    Migrate the database to Azure SQL Database.
C.    Create ExpressRoute connections to each virtual network.
D.    Configure database replication for the databases.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Active geo-replication is Azure SQL Database feature that allows you to create readable replicas of your database in the same or different data center (region).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-geo-replication-overview

NEW QUESTION 405
You are designing a live streaming event by using Azure Media Services. The delivery of the video will use HTTP Live Streaming (HLS) to an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) streaming endpoint. Viewers of the content may not be a trusted party and you require the highest level of security. You must secure the media delivery by using dynamic encryption.
Solution: Use AES-128 dynamic encryption and the key delivery service to encrypt all assets with an associated encryption key and authorization policy. Configure the assert’s delivery policy to deliver by using Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use Azure Media Services to secure your media from the time it leaves your computer through storage, processing, and delivery. With Media Services, you can deliver your live and on-demand content encrypted dynamically with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-128) or any of the three major digital rights management (DRM) systems: Microsoft PlayReady, Google Widevine, and Apple FairPlay.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/media-services/previous/media-services-content-protection-overview

NEW QUESTION 406
A company has 100 Web servers running Windows Server on virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. All servers have IIS enabled. Each server runs a unique combination of web apps. Servers must not run unnecessary services. The servers must be checked every 30 minutes to remove any additional Windows features and correct exceptions. You need to design the solution with the least amount of effort and without downtime.
Solution: Design a solution based on VM scale sets.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Automation State Configuration.

NEW QUESTION 407
A company has 100 Web servers running Windows Server on virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. All servers have IIS enabled. Each server runs a unique combination of web apps. Servers must not run unnecessary services. The servers must be checked every 30 minutes to remove any additional Windows features and correct exceptions. You need to design the solution with the least amount of effort and without downtime.
Solution: Design a solution that deploys a unique Azure Resource Manager template for each VM and copy the appropriate web apps. Create the required number of VMs.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Automation State Configuration. Note: With Resource Manager, you can create a template (in JSON format) that defines the infrastructure and configuration of your Azure solution. By using a template, you can repeatedly deploy your solution throughout its lifecycle and have confidence your resources are deployed in a consistent state. When you create a solution from the portal, the solution automatically includes a deployment template. You don’t have to create your template from scratch because you can start with the template for your solution and customize it to meet your specific needs.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-overview

NEW QUESTION 408
A company has 100 Web servers running Windows Server on virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. All servers have IIS enabled. Each server runs a unique combination of web apps. Servers must not run unnecessary services. The servers must be checked every 30 minutes to remove any additional Windows features and correct exceptions. You need to design the solution with the least amount of effort and without downtime.
Solution: Use Azure Automation DSC.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Automation State Configuration is an Azure service that allows you to write, manage, and compile PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) configurations, import DSC Resources, and assign configurations to target nodes, all in the cloud.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-dsc-overview

NEW QUESTION 409
Your company is developing an e-commerce Azure App Service Web App to support hundreds of restaurant locations around the world. You are designing the messaging solution architecture to support the e-commerce transactions and messages. The e-commerce application has the following features and requirements:

You need to design a solution for the Inventory Distribution feature. Which Azure service should you use?

A.    Azure Event Hub
B.    Azure Service Bus
C.    Azure Event Grid
D.    Azure Relay

Answer: B
Explanation:
Service Bus is intended for traditional enterprise applications. These enterprise applications require transactions, ordering, duplicate detection, and instantaneous consistency. Service Bus enables cloud-native applications to provide reliable state transition management for business processes.
Incorrect:
Not A: Azure Event Hubs is a big data pipeline. It facilitates the capture, retention, and replay of telemetry and event stream data.
Not C: Event Grid is an eventing backplane that enables event-driven, reactive programming.
Not D: The Azure Relay service enables you to securely expose services that run in your corporate network to the public cloud.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/compare-messaging-services

NEW QUESTION 410
A company uses Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) to manage 1,000 virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. The security officer reports that VMs often are not updated. You recommend to the company that they implement the OMS Update Management solution. You need to describe the OMS Update Management solution to the company. Which functionality does the OMS Update Management solution provide?

A.    assessment of Windows and Linux updates on the VMs
B.    alerts regarding VM issues
C.    overview of network activity on the VMs
D.    deployment of required updates to VMs

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Update Management solution in Azure automation allows you to manage operating system updates for your Windows and Linux computers deployed in Azure, on-premises environments, or other cloud providers. You can quickly assess the status of available updates on all agent computers and manage the process of installing required updates for servers. Note: After updates are assessed for all the Linux and Windows computers in your workspace, you can install required updates by creating an update deployment. An update deployment is a scheduled installation of required updates for one or more computers.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/operations-management-suite/oms-solution-update-management

NEW QUESTION 411
You manage an application instance. The application consumes data from multiple databases. Application code references database tables using a combination of the server, database, and table name. You need to migrate the application instance to Azure. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    SQL Server Stretch Database
B.    SQL Server in an Azure virtual machine
C.    SQL Managed Instance
D.    Azure SQL Database

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: SQL Server Stretch Database lets you dynamically stretch warm and cold transactional data from Microsoft SQL Server 2016 to Microsoft Azure. Access SQL Server data if it’s on-premises or stretched to the cloud. You set policy that determines where data is stored and SQL Server moves the data in the background for you. The table is online and ready to query, and you don’t have to change existing queries or applications–it’s completely transparent.
C: Managed Instance allows existing SQL Server customers to lift and shift their on-premises applications to the cloud with minimal application and database changes. At the same time, Managed Instance preserves all PaaS capabilities (automatic patching and version updates, automated backups, high-availability), that drastically reduces management overhead and TCO.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/sql-server-stretch-database/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 412
You are designing a security solution for a company’s web application. You need to secure the web application by using Web Application Firewall (WAF). For which three types of attacks will the solution protect? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    zero-day exploits
B.    SQL injection
C.    DOS attacks
D.    cross-site scripting attacks
E.    DDOS attacks

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
Web Application Firewall features include:
– SQL injection protection
– Cross site scripting protection
– Common Web Attacks Protection such as command injection, HTTP request smuggling, HTTP response splitting, and remote file inclusion attack
– Protection against HTTP protocol violations
– Protection against HTTP protocol anomalies such as missing host user-agent and accept headers
– Prevention against bots, crawlers, and scanners
– Detection of common application misconfigurations (that is, Apache, IIS, etc.)
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/waf-overview

NEW QUESTION 413
You are designing a live streaming event by using Azure Media Services. The delivery of the video will use HTTP Live Streaming (HLS) to an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) streaming endpoint. Viewers of the content may not be a trusted party and you require the highest level of security. You must secure the media delivery by using dynamic encryption.
Solution: Use Azure Storage Service Encryption to encrypt all assets with an encryption key and authorization policy. Configure the asset’s delivery policy to deliver by using Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use Azure Media Services to secure your media from the time it leaves your computer through storage, processing, and delivery. With Media Services, you can deliver your live and on-demand content encrypted dynamically with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-128) or any of the three major digital rights management (DRM) systems: Microsoft PlayReady, Google Widevine, and Apple FairPlay.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/media-services/previous/media-services-content-protection-overview

NEW QUESTION 414
A company deploys Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect to synchronize identity information from their on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts, credential hashes for authentication (password sync), and group memberships. The company plans to deploy several Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs) to support their applications. The VMs have the following requirements:
– Support domain join, LDAP read, LDAP bind, NTLM and Kerberos authentication, and Group Policy.
– Allow users to sign in to the domain using their corporate credentials and connect remotely to the VM by using Remote Desktop.
You need to support the VM deployment. Which service should you use?

A.    Active Directory Federation Services (AS FS)
B.    Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
C.    Azure AD Domain Services
D.    Azure AD Managed Service Identity

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure AD Domain Services provides managed domain services such as domain join, group policy, LDAP, Kerberos/NTLM authentication that are fully compatible with Windows Server Active Directory. Azure AD Domain Services enables users to sign in to the domain using their corporate credentials – for example, when connecting remotely to machines joined to the domain via Remote Desktop.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview

NEW QUESTION 415
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NEW QUESTION 278
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Docker host. You are creating a Dockerfile to build a Docker image. You need to add a file named File1.txt from Server1 to C:\Folder1\ in the Docker image. What are two possible commands that you can use to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    COPY file1.txt c:/folder1/
B.    copy-item file1.txt folder1\file1.txt
C.    ROBOCOPY file.txt \folder1\
D.    XCOPY file1.txt c:\folder1\
E.    ADD file1.txt /folder1/

Answer: AE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/manage-docker/manage-windows-dockerfile

NEW QUESTION 279
You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table:

All of the virtual switches are of the external type. You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to disconnect from the network.
Solution: You implement live migration by using Host1 and Host3.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 280
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender is enabled on Server1. Server1 runs an application named App1 that stores various types of files in Microsoft OneDrive for Business, Microsoft OneDrive, and Microsoft SharePoint Online. App1 also interacts with several local services. You need to prevent Windows Defender from scanning any files opened by App1. What should you do on Server1?

A.    Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy cmdlet.
B.    Run the New-AppLockerPolicy cmdlet.
C.    Modify the real-time protection settings in Windows Defender.
D.    From the Windows Defender settings, configure a process exclusion.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 281
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to install the DNS Server role on Server1. What should you run?

A.    the dnscmd.exe command
B.    the Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature cmdlet
C.    the dns.exe command
D.    the setup.exe command

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 282
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster as shown in the exhibit:

Which hosts will respond to requests sent to nlb.adatum.com?

A.    Server1 only.
B.    Server2 only.
C.    Server1 and Server2 only.
D.    Server1, Server2, and Server3.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 283
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The server has an application named App1. App1 writes entries to the Application event log when errors are encountered. The events have IDs of either 111 or 112. You need to restart the service whenever either of these events is logged. What should you do?

A.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-SMServerEvent cmdlet and pipe the output to the Start-NetEventSession cmdlet.
B.    From Event Viewer, create a subscription that has a filter for the event IDs.
C.    From Event Viewer, use the Create Basic Task Wizard for each event ID.
D.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-Event cmdlet and pipe the output to the Start-NetEventSession cmdlet.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 284
You have a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. The nodes run Windows Server 2016. The NLB cluster has the following configuration:

You deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to both servers. You need to configure NLB to load balance requests between the web servers. HTTP requests must be stateless. HTTPS requests must be stateful. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Modify the Cluster operation mode.
B.    Suspend the cluster.
C.    Drainstop the cluster.
D.    Add a new port rule.
E.    Edit the existing port rule.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://www.ntweekly.com/2017/09/04/failover-nlb-cluster-host-member/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/network-load-balancing

NEW QUESTION 285
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender is enabled on Server1. Server1 runs an application named App1 that stores various types of files in Microsoft OneDrive for Business, Microsoft OneDrive, and Microsoft SharePoint Online. App1 also interacts with several local services. You need to prevent Windows Defender from scanning any files opened by App1. What should you do on Server1?

A.    Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy cmdlet.
B.    Run the New-AppLockerPolicy cmdlet.
C.    Modify the real-time protection settings in Windows Defender.
D.    Run the Add-MpPreference cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-antivirus/configure-process-opened-file-exclusions-windows-defender-antivirus

NEW QUESTION 286
You plan to deploy three servers that will run Windows Server 2016. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table:

You need to ensure that you can use all of the available space on each disk. What is one of the disks that you must initialize as a GPT disk?

A.    Disk1 on Server2
B.    Disk2 on Server2
C.    Disk1 on Server1
D.    Disk2 on Server1

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/disk-management/initialize-new-disks#about-partition-styles-GPT-and-MBR

NEW QUESTION 287
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to install the DNS Server role on Server1. What should you run?

A.    the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
B.    the dnscmd.exe command
C.    the optionalfeatures.exe command
D.    the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet installs one or more roles, role services, or features on either the local or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2008 R2. This cmdlet has been replaced by the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet in Windows Server 2012 R2.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/servermanager/install-windowsfeature?view=winserver2012r2-ps

NEW QUESTION 288
……


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NEW QUESTION 121
You have a database that is 130 GB and contains 500 million rows of data. Granular transactions and mass batch data imports change the database frequently throughout the day. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) uses the database to generate various reports by using several filters. You discover that some reports time out before they complete. You need to reduce the likelihood that the reports will time out.
Solution: You increase the number of log files for the database. You store the log files across multiple disks.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead, create a file group for the indexes and a file group for the data files.

NEW QUESTION 122
You have a database that contains the following tables: BlogCategory, BlogEntry, ProductReview, Product, and SalesPerson. The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:

You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
– The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table.
– Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
– Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.
– Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory. The transact-SQL statements for these tables are not available. You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:
– Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.
– Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:
– A constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier.
– A constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table.
– A constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column.
– A constraint that limits the SalePrice column to values greater than four.
– Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.
You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder. The table must meet the following requirements:
– The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.
– The table must use checkpoints to minimize I/O operations and must not use transaction logging.
– Data loss is acceptable.
Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use WHERE clauses with exact equality operations must be optimized. You need to modify the environment to meet the requirements for the Orders table. What should you create?

A.    an AFTER UPDATE trigger
B.    a user-defined function
C.    a stored procedure with output parameters
D.    an INSTEAD OF INSERT trigger

Answer: D
Explanation:
From Question: You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements: Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table. Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-trigger-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 123
You have a table that has a clustered index and a nonclustered index. The indexes use different columns from the table. You have a query named Query1 that uses the nonclustered index. Users report that Query1 takes a long time to report results. You run Query1 and review the following statistics for an index seek operation:

You need to resolve the performance issue.
Solution: You rebuild the clustered index.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
The query uses the nonclustered index, so improving the clustered index will not help. We should update statistics for the nonclustered index.

NEW QUESTION 124
You need to create a view that can be indexed. You write the following statement:

What should you add at line 02?

A.    with check_option
B.    with recompile
C.    with view_metadata
D.    with schemabinding

Answer: D
Explanation:
The following steps are required to create an indexed view and are critical to the successful implementation of the indexed view:
1. Verify the SET options are correct for all existing tables that will be referenced in the view.
2. Verify that the SET options for the session are set correctly before you create any tables and the view.
3. Verify that the view definition is deterministic.
4. Create the view by using the WITH SCHEMABINDING option.
5. Create the unique clustered index on the view.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/views/create-indexed-views?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 125
You have a nonpartitioned table that has a single dimension. The table is named dim.Products.Projections. The table is queried frequently by several line-of-business applications. The data is updated frequently throughout the day by two processes. Users report that when they query data from dim.Products.Projections, the responses are slower than expected. The issue occurs when a large number of rows are being updated. You need to prevent the updates from slowing down the queries. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The NOLOCK hint allows SQL to read data from tables by ignoring any locks and therefore not being blocked by other processes. This can improve query performance, but also introduces the possibility of dirty reads.
https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2470/understanding-the-sql-server-nolock-hint/

NEW QUESTION 126
Your company runs end-of-the-month accounting reports. While the reports run, other financial records are updated in the database. Users report that the reports take longer than expected to run. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for the reports to run. The reports must show committed data only. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.
F.    Set SET XACT_ABORT to ON.
G.    Execute the ALTER TABLE T1 SET (LOCK_ESCALATION = AUTO); statement.
H.    Use the OUTPUT parameters.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Snapshot isolation enhances concurrency for OLTP applications. Once snapshot isolation is enabled, updated row versions for each transaction are maintained in tempdb. A unique transaction sequence number identifies each transaction, and these unique numbers are recorded for each row version. The transaction works with the most recent row versions having a sequence number before the sequence number of the transaction. Newer row versions created after the transaction has begun are ignored by the transaction.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/snapshot-isolation-in-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 127
You have several real-time applications that constantly update data in a database. The applications run more than 400 transactions per second that insert and update new metrics from sensors. A new web dashboard is released to present the data from the sensors. Engineers report that the applications take longer than expected to commit updates. You need to change the dashboard queries to improve concurrency and to support reading uncommitted data. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.
F.    Set SET XACT_ABORT to ON.
G.    Execute the ALTER TABLE T1 SET (LOCK_ESCALATION = AUTO); statement.
H.    Use the OUTPUT parameters.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The NOLOCK hint allows SQL to read data from tables by ignoring any locks and therefore not being blocked by other processes. This can improve query performance, but also introduces the possibility of dirty reads.
Incorrect:
Not F: When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Not G: DISABLE, not AUTO, would be better. There are two more lock escalation modes: AUTO and DISABLE:
– The AUTO mode enables lock escalation for partitioned tables only for the locked partition. For non-partitioned tables it works like TABLE.
– The DISABLE mode removes the lock escalation capability for the table and that is important when concurrency issues are more important than memory needs for specific tables.
Note: SQL Server’s locking mechanism uses memory resources to maintain locks. In situations where the number of row or page locks increases to a level that decreases the server’s memory resources to a minimal level, SQL Server’s locking strategy converts these locks to entire table locks, thus freeing memory held by the many single row or page locks to one table lock. This process is called lock escalation, which frees memory, but reduces table concurrency.
https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2470/understanding-the-sql-server-nolock-hint/

NEW QUESTION 128
You have multiple stored procedures inside a transaction. You need to ensure that all the data modified by the transaction is rolled back if a stored procedure causes a deadlock or times out. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.
F.    Set SET XACT_ABORT to ON.
G.    Execute the ALTER TABLE T1 SET (LOCK_ESCALATION = AUTO); statement.
H.    Use the OUTPUT parameters.

Answer: F
Explanation:
When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/set-xact-abort-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 129
You run the following Transact-SQL statements:

Records must only be added to the Orders table by using the view. If a customer name does not exist, then a new customer name must be created. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the Orders table by using the view. What should you do?

A.    Add the CustomerID column from the Orders table and the WITH CHECK OPTION statement to the view.
B.    Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
C.    Add the WITH SCHEMABINDING statement to the view statement and create a clustered index on the view.
D.    Remove the subquery from the view, add the WITH SCHEMABINDING statement, and add a trigger to the Orders table to perform the required logic.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The WITH CHECK OPTION clause forces all data-modification statements executed against the view to adhere to the criteria set within the WHERE clause of the SELECT statement defining the view. Rows cannot be modified in a way that causes them to vanish from the view.
http://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=130855&seqNum=4

NEW QUESTION 130
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

There are multiple unique OrderID values. Most of the UnitPrice values for the same OrderID are different. You need to create a single index seek query that does not use the following operators:
– Nested loop
– Sort
– Key lookup
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice) INCLUDE (Description, Quantity)
B.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice) INCLUDE (Quantity)
C.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice, Quantity)
D.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (UnitPrice, OrderID) INCLUDE (Description, Quantity)

Answer: A
Explanation:
An index with nonkey columns can significantly improve query performance when all columns in the query are included in the index either as key or nonkey columns. Performance gains are achieved because the query optimizer can locate all the column values within the index; table or clustered index data is not accessed resulting in fewer disk I/O operations. Note: All data types except text, ntext, and image can be used as nonkey columns.
Incorrect:
Not C: Redesign nonclustered indexes with a large index key size so that only columns used for searching and lookups are key columns.
Not D: The most unique column should be the first in the index.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-index-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 131
You are developing an ETL process to cleanse and consolidate incoming data. The ETL process will use a reference table to identify which data must be cleansed in the target table. The server that hosts the table restarts daily. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes to execute the query and the amount of time it takes to populate the reference table. What should you do?

A.    Convert the target table to a memory-optimized table.
Create a natively compiled stored procedure to cleanse and consolidate the data.
B.    Convert the reference table to a memory-optimized table.
Set the DURABILITY option to SCHEMA_AND_DATA.
C.    Create a native compiled stored procedure to implement the ETL process for both tables.
D.    Convert the reference table to a memory-optimized table.
Set the DURABILITY option to SCHEMA_ONLY.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If you use temporary tables, table variables, or table-valued parameters, consider conversions of them to leverage memory-optimized tables and table variables to improve performance. In-Memory OLTP provides the following objects that can be used for memory-optimizing temp tables and table variables:
……
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/in-memory-oltp/faster-temp-table-and-table-variable-by-using-memory-optimization?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 132
You are designing a stored procedure for a database named DB1. The following requirements must be met during the entire execution of the stored procedure:
– The stored procedure must only read changes that are persisted to the database.
– SELECT statements within the stored procedure should only show changes to the data that are made by the stored procedure.
You need to configure the transaction isolation level for the stored procedure. Which Transact-SQL statement or statements should you run?

A.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITED
ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT ON
B.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ COMMITED
ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT OFF
C.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE
D.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITED
ALTER DATABASE SET READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT OFF

Answer: B
Explanation:
READ COMMITTED specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not committed by other transactions. This prevents dirty reads. Data can be changed by other transactions between individual statements within the current transaction, resulting in nonrepeatable reads or phantom data. This option is the SQL Server default.
Incorrect:
Not A, D: READ UNCOMMITTED specifies that statements can read rows that have been modified by other transactions but not yet committed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/snapshot-isolation-in-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 133
……


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NEW QUESTION 1401
Over the years a user has been accidentally creating copies of folders in a personal drive and as a result, there are now hundreds of “copy of copy” folders dotted throughout the drive. Which of the following Windows command line tools might a technician use to obtain a complete list of all the folders for use in a deletion script?

A.    dir
B.    ls
C.    rd
D.    del

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1402
A technician is attempting to create a hidden administrative share. Administrative shares can be created by using which of the following symbols after the drive letter or share name?

A.    #
B.    $
C.    !
D.    &

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1403
A user has reported sluggish performance to the help desk. A technician determines the user has been installing applications for entertainment and one of them might be slowing down the system. Which of the following tools would help the technician track down the troublesome application(s)?

A.    msconfig
B.    regedit
C.    defray
D.    gpupdate

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1404
An electrical fire starts in a PC on a crowded sales floor of an office building. Which of the following is the BEST way to extinguish the fire and keep all personnel safe?

A.    Use a large container filled with water
B.    Use a “C” labeled fire extinguisher
C.    Use an “A” labeled fire extinguisher
D.    Use a “B” labeled fire extinguisher
E.    Use a halon fire suppression system

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1405
Ann is a technician, operates a humanitarian relief business that often requires travel to harsh environments with a number of computers and equipment. An upcoming relief effort will require her to travel to a dry and dusty location. Which of the following items should Ann plan to bring to protect her equipment from the elements? (Choose two.)

A.    Heating elements
B.    Compressed air cans
C.    Extra computer cases
D.    Spare cables
E.    Humidifier
F.    Oxygen tanks

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 1406
As part of a regulatory compliance review, an organization determines it must migrate public cloud services, providing capabilities into the organizations datacenter. Which of the following does the organization plan to implement?

A.    IaaS cloud
B.    Private cloud
C.    Community cloud
D.    Hybrid cloud

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1407
A technician installs new software on a customer’s Windows 8 1 computer and is getting a missing DLL error. The technician verifies that the DLL file is located m the proper directory. Which of the following tools could be used to resolve this issue?

A.    grub
B.    rogsvr32
C.    defrag
D.    tracert

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1408
A technician is upgrading the OS of a home PC to Windows 7. The user wants to keep all the files and applications and does not want to do a clean install. The current version installed on the PC is Windows Vista 32-bit. Which of the following Windows versions is applicable?

A.    Windows 7 Ultimate x64
B.    Windows 7 Professional x64
C.    Windows 7 Professional x86
D.    Windows 7 Enterprise x86

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1409
A technician is attempting to remove all data from a hard drive and make the data unrecoverable. Which of the following is MOST likely to accomplish this?

A.    Format C: /q /x
B.    BitLocker
C.    Parted
D.    Disk repartition
E.    Low-level format

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1410
A user receives a call from someone who claims to be part of the IT department. The IT caller instructs the user to provide the IP address of the user’s computer. Which of the following actions should the user take NEXT?

A.    Assume a social engineering attack and disconnect.
B.    Provide the caller with the information requested.
C.    Contact the IT department for confirmation.
D.    Receive advice from a coworker on the situation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1411
A user needs assistance setting up auto-sync on a Windows 8 phone. Which of the following tools is MOST appropriate for this scenario?

A.    Google Sync
B.    OneNote
C.    Dropbox
D.    Amazon Cloud Sync

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1412
Which of the following is MOST likely a server with an associated MX record?

A.    Print server
B.    Web server
C.    File server
D.    Mail server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1413
A user wants to ensure important documents are protected from accidental deletion, system malfunctions, and malicious activity. Which of the following features should the user implement?

A.    Run System File Checker
B.    Configure recurring backups
C.    Allocate space to System Restore
D.    Update antivirus software

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1414
A user look pictures of a vacation using a new Android smartphone. Family and friends inform the user that some of the pictures have made the local news. Which of the following cloud services does the user MOST likely need to change to remediate the privacy concerns?

A.    iCloud
B.    Google Sync
C.    iTunes
D.    OneDrive

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1415
A user has installed a new application. After installing the application another application stops functioning and displays a missing DLL message. After determining which DLL has been deleted and finding it on the system, which of the following tools should be used to correct the error?

A.    REGSRV32
B.    DEFRAG
C.    MSCONFIG
D.    NTLDR

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1416
A customer calls the help desk to report an intermittent dim display on a recently purchased laptop that is used while traveling. The display appears to function properly white the customer is at home, but the display appears dim while traveling. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the dim display?

A.    The power cord has a short and does not provide power properly.
B.    The ambient light in the customer’s home causes the display to appear brighter.
C.    The display is defective and cannot maintain a consistent power level.
D.    The laptop is set to dim the display while on internal power.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1417
A user brings a personal laptop to the help desk and states that a clicking sound occurs when the laptop is turned on. After troubleshooting the issue, the technician concludes the hard drive needs to be replaced. The help desk does not replace any hardware on personal devices. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should follow?

A.    Dismiss the user’s issue and move to the next user
B.    Offer a different repair option to the user
C.    Replace the hard drive and inform the user
D.    Ask concise close-ended questions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1418
A technician is upgrading hard drives on several workstations however the office would like to convert the old SATA drives into external drives for additional storage. Which of the following would be the BEST method of ensuring the drives do not contain any PII prior to reusing the drives?

A.    Quick format
B.    Low-level format
C.    Degauss the drive
D.    Convert to a new file system

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1419
A technician is configuring a SOHO network of several Windows 7 PCs for a customer. The customer wants to easily share media and printers between all the PCs. Which of the following Windows features would BEST accomplish this goal?

A.    Homegroup
B.    Workgroup
C.    Directory Services
D.    Offline Folders

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1420
A user has been receiving reply emails from many contacts but the content of the emails is not familiar and the user did not send the original messages. The user calls the help desk for assistance. Which of the following is the BEST way the technician can fix this problem?

A.    Perform an antivirus scan
B.    Perform a refresh/restore
C.    Perform an IDS upgrade
D.    Perform a reinstall of the email client

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1421
An accountant calls the IT administrator for assistance with a suspicious empty folder named “stuff.” The administrator determines the folder needs to be removed via the command-line interface. Which of the following Microsoft tools should be used to eliminate the folder from the accountant’s PC?

A.    del stuff
B.    kill stuff
C.    clean stuff
D.    rd stuff

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1422
A technician receives an end user’s computer that displays erratic behavior upon startup. When the technician starts the computer performance is reduced. A window appears on the screen stating a purchase must be made to disinfect the computer. The technician quarantines the computer and disables System Restore. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Roll back the NIC driver
B.    Update and install anti-malware software
C.    Configure and enable the email spam filters
D.    Verify the security certificate is valid
E.    Perform a full system backup

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1423
A company wants to streamline the remote deployment of desktop and laptop computers. Which of the following should the technician implement if the primary goal is to ensure the installation can complete automatically once started?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Remote network installation
C.    Repair installation
D.    Clean installation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1424
By default which of the following permissions will take precedence over any other assigned permission on a mapped network drive?

A.    Deny
B.    Modify
C.    Share
D.    Allow

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1425
Which of the following is MOST likely to appear on the display during a Mac OS X crash?

A.    BSOD
B.    Kernel panic
C.    Pinwheel
D.    Stack dump

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1426
A technician needs to load several new computers with the company’s customized OS configuration. The technician asks if the systems can be PXE booted. To save the most time which of the following should be considered if the technician plans to use PXE to boot the systems?

A.    Multiboot
B.    Repair installation
C.    Upgrade installation
D.    Image deployment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1427
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following features is supported in Check Point’s implementation of IPv6?

A.    Security Servers
B.    QoS
C.    ClusterXL High Availability
D.    SAM

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk39374

NEW QUESTION 2
Which type of SecureXL template is enabled by default on Security Gateways?

A.    Accept
B.    Drop
C.    NAT
D.    VPN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which command is used to enable IPv6 on Security Gateway?

A.    Set ipv6 state on
B.    Set ipv6 interface on
C.    Set ipv6-enable on
D.    Set ipv6-state enabled

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following ports are used for SIC?

A.    18355 and 18356
B.    18210 and 18211
C.    257 and 258
D.    18192 and 18193

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://digitalcrunch.com/check-point-firewall/list-of-check-point-ports/

NEW QUESTION 5
Which one of the following does not belong to an initial status of a critical device?

A.    Restart
B.    Problem
C.    Init
D.    OK

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

NEW QUESTION 6
The Security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80, the port for Web User Interface is ____.

A.    TCP 18211
B.    TCP 257
C.    TCP 4433
D.    TCP 443

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
What is the shorthand reference for a classification object?

A.    CLOB
B.    Class.obj
C.    Classobj
D.    COBJ

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk120964

NEW QUESTION 8
Where do Protocol parsers register themselves for IPS?

A.    Passive Streaming Library
B.    Other handlers register to Protocol parser
C.    Protections database
D.    Context Management Infrastructure

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.nwtechusa.com/pdf/checkpoint_blade_ips.pdf

NEW QUESTION 9
What Cluster XL mechanism is used to verify that the interfaces of other cluster members are UP and communicates the status of cluster members?

A.    PING
B.    CCP
C.    PPP
D.    HELLO

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
The maximum number of critical devices or p notes on a cluster member is what?

A.    8
B.    24
C.    32
D.    16

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

NEW QUESTION 11
URL Filtering is an essential part of Web Security in the Gateway. For the Security Gateway to perform a URL lookup when a client makes a URL request, where is the sync-request forwarded from if a sync-request is required?

A.    RAD Kernel Space
B.    URLF Kernel Client
C.    URLF Online Service
D.    RAD User Space

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/9034-url-filtering-using-dns

NEW QUESTION 12
Which templates for Secure XL are not enabled by default?

A.    All templates are disabled by default
B.    Accept and NMR
C.    Drop and NAT
D.    All templates are enabled by default

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk71200

NEW QUESTION 13
IPS detection incorporates 4 layers. Which of the following is NOT a layer in IPS detection?

A.    Context Management
B.    Protocol Parsers
C.    Protections
D.    Detections

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Consider and IKE debug file that has been generated when debugging an issue with site to site VPN. What is the purpose of a NONCE?

A.    Randomly generated part of key generation
B.    Vendor ID and Remote Gateway ID
C.    Protocol 50 and 51 representations
D.    Fixed hex value of Phase 2 keys with PFS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
In a high traffic network, which feature allows for more than one traffic path on an interface so that more than one CPU can be used for acceleration?

A.    Interface Bonding
B.    VLAN
C.    ASIC
D.    Multi Queue

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/93689.htm

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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NEW QUESTION 561
A home user has purchased a new smart TV to stream online video services. The smart TV is unable to connect to the wireless network after several attempts. After returning from vacation, the home user tries again and can connect the TV to the wireless network. However, the user notices a laptop is no longer able to connect to the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.    The DHCP scope has been exhausted.
B.    The security passcode has been changed.
C.    The SSID is hidden.
D.    The AP configuration was reset.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 562
A security guard notices an authorized individual, who is dressed like a lab technician, has entered a secure area of the hospital with a large group. Which of the following security attacks is taking place?

A.    Evil twin
B.    Social engineering
C.    Insider threat
D.    Phishing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 563
Which of the following DNS record types allows IPv6 records to be resolved to DNS names?

A.    PTR
B.    A
C.    AAAA
D.    SRV

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 564
A network technician has recently installed new VoIP phones at all employee’s desks to support a new SIP cloud VoIP solution. However, the technician is unable to make a call from the device after testing. Which of the following should the technician verify? (Choose two.)

A.    TCP 443 is allowed.
B.    UDP 1720 is allowed.
C.    UDP 5060 is allowed.
D.    UDP 5061 is allowed.
E.    TCP 8080 is allowed.
F.    TCP 8181 is allowed.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 565
Which of the following would allow a network technician to access files on a remote system? (Choose two.)

A.    FTP
B.    TFTP
C.    VLSM
D.    SIP
E.    SMTP
F.    IMAP

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 566
Which of the following provides two-factor authentication?

A.    Username + password
B.    Smart card + PIN
C.    Fingerprint + retina scan
D.    Key fob + ID card

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 567
A technician set up a new SOHO network recently. The installed router has four Ethernet ports, however, the customer has seven devices that need wired connections. Which of the following should the technician do to BEST meet the customer’s requirements?

A.    Install a six-port switch.
B.    Configure port forwarding on the router.
C.    Install WAPs near the devices.
D.    Configure the switchports as EtherChannel ports.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 568
A technician is performing a maintenance task on a weekly basis and wants to ensure the task is properly documented and able to be performed by other technicians. Which of the following types of documentation should the technician complete?

A.    Standard operating procedure
B.    Work order
C.    Performance baseline
D.    Logical diagram
E.    Change management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 569
A company is allowing its employees to use their personal computers, tablets, and IoT devices while at work. However, there are rules and guidelines to which employees must adhere. Which of the following documents applies to these employees?

A.    NDA
B.    SOP
C.    BYOD
D.    SLA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 570
Which of the following are characteristics of jumbo frames? (Choose two.)

A.    Commonly used on SAN
B.    MTU size greater than 1500
C.    MTU size greater than 10000
D.    Commonly used on IaaS
E.    MTU size greater than 12000

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 571
A network administrator gets a call regarding intermittent network outages across the country. Which of the following should be used to connect to the network so the administrator can troubleshoot this issue from home? (Choose two.)

A.    FTP
B.    SMTP
C.    VPN
D.    SSH
E.    SNMP

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 572
A network technician downloaded new firmware for the company firewall. Which of the following should the network technician verify to ensure the downloaded file is correct and complete?

A.    File hash
B.    File date
C.    File type
D.    File size

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 573
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues with a remote host. Which of the following tools would BEST inform the technician of nodes between the client and the remote host? (Choose two.)

A.    tracert
B.    ping
C.    tcpdump
D.    pathping
E.    netstat
F.    nslookup
G.    route

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 574
Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a collision occurs?

A.    CSMA/CD
B.    CSMA/CA
C.    MPLS
D.    OSPF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 575
A network technician receives a call from a branch office about a problem with its wireless connectivity. The user states the office is hosting a large meeting that includes some online training with local businesses. The guest users have all brought devices to connect to the guest network at the branch office. All users are connected to a single WAP and are reporting that connections keep dropping and network spends are unusable. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    DHCP exhaustion
B.    Channel overlapping
C.    Interference
D.    Overcapacity

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 576
Which of the following BEST describes an exploit?

A.    A router with default credentials
B.    An open mail relay server
C.    An SNMPv1 private community
D.    A privilege escalation script

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 577
A server in a LAN was configured to act as a gateway between all company computers and an external network. Which of the following networking devices offers the ability to increase both performance and security?

A.    Load balancer
B.    IDS
C.    Proxy server
D.    Wireless controller

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 578
A technician is setting up VoIP phones on a wireless network. Users report that calls are choppy and sometimes dropped. The technician has measured two characteristics using simple command-line tools that verify the problem. Which of the following characteristics did the technician measure? (Choose two.)

A.    Reflection
B.    Latency
C.    Interference
D.    Packet loss
E.    Signal-to-noise ratio
F.    Attenuation

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 579
Which of the following ports should a network technician open on a firewall to back up the configuration and operating system files of a router to a remote server using the FASTEST method possible?

A.    UDP port 22
B.    TCP port 22
C.    TCP port 25
D.    UDP port 53
E.    UDP port 69

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 580
A technician is replacing a failed SOHO router for a customer who has an existing switch, cable modem, and static IP address. The user has a web server that faces the Internet so users can visit and leave comments. Which of the following BEST describes the correct configuration for this customer’s requirements?

A.    The modem is placed in bridge mode, the router is placed behind the modem, and the web server is placed behind the router.
B.    The router is placed in bridge mode, the modem is placed behind the router, and the web server is placed behind the modem.
C.    The web server is placed in bridge mode, the router is placed behind the web server, and the modem is placed behind the router.
D.    The switch is placed in bridge mode, the modem is placed behind the router, and the router is placed behind the modem.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 581
A network technician is attempting to troubleshoot a connectivity issue. The issue is only reported during the evening hours, and only a single workstation loses connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A.    The router has a time-based ACL, applied for the network segment.
B.    A light source is creating EMI interference, affecting the UTP cabling.
C.    Nightly backups are consuming excessive bandwidth.
D.    The user has violated the AUP, and Internet access has been restricted.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 582
A network administrator is redesigning network security after an attack. During the attack, an attacker used open cubicle locations to attach devices to the network. The administrator wants to be able to monitor future attacks in a safe environment and determine the method of attack. Which of the following should the administrator do to BEST meet this requirement?

A.    Create a VLAN for the unused ports and create a honeyspot on the VLAN.
B.    Install a BPDU guard on switchports and enable STP.
C.    Create a DMZ for public servers and secure a segment for the internal network.
D.    Install antivirus software and set an ACL on the servers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 583
A company has just refreshed the hardware in its datacenter with new 10G Ethernet switches. A technician wishes to set up a new storage area network but must use existing infrastructure. Which of the following storage standards should the technician use?

A.    iSCSI
B.    Fibre Channel
C.    NAS
D.    InfiniBand

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 584
A network technician needs to install a new access switch. After installing the new switch, the technician begins to move connections from the old switch to the new switch. The old switch used a GBIC with SC connectors, and the new switch uses an SFP with LC connectors. After connecting the SC connector to the SC-to-LC adapter and plugging it into the switch, the link does not come up as expected. Which of the following should a network technician perform NEXT?

A.    Replace SFP with a new one.
B.    Fall back to the old switch.
C.    Transpose the fiber pairs.
D.    Replace multimode with single-mode cable.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 585
A network technician is installing a new SOHO branch office that requires the use of a DOCSIS-compatible modem. The modem needs to be connected to the ISP’s network at the demarc. Which of the following cable types should be used?

A.    UTP
B.    Multimode
C.    Coaxial
D.    Serial

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 586
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You have two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. Each subscription is associated to a different Azure AD tenant. Subscription1 contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1 and has an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16. Subscription2 contains a virtual network named VNet2. Vnet2 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM2 and has an IP address space of 10.10.0.0/24. You need to connect VNet1 to VNet2. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the IP address space of VNet2.
B.    Move VM1 to Subscription2.
C.    Provision virtual network gateways.
D.    Move VNet1 to Subscription2.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You configure Azure AD Connect for Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-On (Azure AD Seamless SSO) for an on-premises network. Users report that when they attempt to access myapps.microsoft.com, they are prompted multiple times to sign in and are forced to use an account name that ends with onmicrosoft.com. You discover that there is a UPN mismatch between Azure AD and the on-premises Active Directory. You need to ensure that the users can use single-sign on (SSO) to access Azure resources. What should you do first?

A.    From on-premises network, deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
B.    From Azure AD, add and verify a custom domain name.
C.    From on-premises network, request a new certificate that contains the Active Directory domain name.
D.    From the server that runs Azure AD Connect, modify the filtering options.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1. Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev. You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the DevTest Labs User role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps. You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent within seven days.
Solution: Backup data to local disks and use the Azure Import/Export service to send backups to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
HotSpot
You are creating a bot for a company by using QnA Maker. You need to ensure that the company can update the bot without third-party assistance. What should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/qnamaker/overview/overview

NEW QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do?

A.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
B.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
D.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/hyper-v-azure-tutorial

NEW QUESTION 7
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All administrators must enter a verification code to access the Azure portal. You need to ensure that the administrators can access the Azure portal only from your on-premises network. What should you configure?

A.    the default for all the roles in Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
B.    an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy
C.    an Azure AD Identity Protection sign-in risk policy
D.    the multi-factor authentication service settings

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-mfasettings

Case Study 1
The on-premises workloads run on virtual machines hosted in a VMware vSphere 6 infrastructure. All the virtual machines are members of an Active Directory forest named adatum.com and run Windows Server 2016. The New York office uses an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16. The Los Angeles office uses an IP address space of 10.10.0.0/16. The offices connect by using a VPN provided by an ISP. Each office has one Azure ExpressRoute circuit that provides access to Azure services and Microsoft Online Services. Routing is implemented by using Microsoft peering. The New York office has a virtual machine named VM1 that has the vSphere console installed.
……

NEW QUESTION 11
You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A.    a multi-site listener
B.    a basic routing rule
C.    a URL path-based routing rule
D.    a basic listener

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url-route-portal

NEW QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits. How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? (To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
……

NEW QUESTION 14
You are creating an IoT solution using Azure Time Series Insights. You configure the environment to ensure that all data for the current year is available. What should you do?

A.    Add a disaster recovery (DR) strategy.
B.    Set a value for the Data retention time setting.
C.    Change the pricing tier.
D.    Create a reference data set.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
You create a social media application that users can use to upload images and other content. Users report that adult content is being posted in an area of the site that is accessible to and intended for young children. You need to automatically detect and flag potentially offensive content. The solution must not require any custom coding other than code to scan and evaluate images. What should you implement?

A.    Bing Visual Search
B.    Bing Image Search
C.    Custom Vision Search
D.    Computer Vision API

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……

Case Study 2
Best For You Organics Company is a global restaurant franchise that has multiple locations. The company wants to enhance user experiences and vendor integrations. The company plans to implement automated mobile ordering and delivery services. Best For You Organics hosts an Azure web app at the URL https://www.bestforyouorganics.com. Users can use the web app to browse restaurant location, menu items, nutritional information, and company information. The company developed and deployed a cross-platform mobile app.
……

NEW QUESTION 21
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a Microsoft Office 365 SMTP server.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-configure-notifications

NEW QUESTION 22
You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A.    HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)
B.    Direct Line API
C.    Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D.    Bot Framework Portal
E.    Bot Framework authentication

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 23
……

NEW QUESTION 28
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users. What should you do?

A.    Create an Azure AD conditional access policy.
B.    Configure a playbook in Azure Security Center.
C.    Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
D.    Install an MFA Server.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 29
You are developing an app that references data which is shared across multiple Azure SQL databases. The app must guarantee transactional consistency for changes across several different sharing key values. You need to manage the transactions. What should you implement?

A.    Elastic database transactions with horizontal partitioning.
B.    Distributed transactions coordinated by Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator (MSDTC).
C.    Server-coordinated transactions from .NET application.
D.    Elastic database transactions with vertical partitioning.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/mt-mt/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-transactions-overview?view=azurermps-6.13.0

NEW QUESTION 30
You are developing a speech-enabled home automation control bot. The bot interprets some spoken words incorrectly. You need to improve the spoken word recognition for the bot. What should you implement?

A.    The Skype for Business Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
B.    The Web Chat Channel and Speech priming using a Bing Speech Service and LUIS app.
C.    The Skype Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
D.    The Cortana Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 31
……


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Ensure HDX sessions are launched in the zone that is closest to user data, if possible. If the preferred zone for the user is unavailable, launch the session in an alternative zone. Which zone preference setting can the Citrix Engineer use to accomplish these objectives?

A.    App Home
B.    User Home
C.    User Location
D.    Mandatory User Home Zone

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 117
Scenario:
A company has three data center locations. Each location maintains a large number of users who will need to access applications and desktop resources. The company owns sufficient hardware resources and maintains sufficient financial resources to build its New XenDesktop infrastructure. The WAN connectivity between the three data centers is NOT reliable. Which deployment option should a Citrix Engineer implement to meet this requirement?

A.    A single XenDesktop Site with three zones (one Primary Zone and two Satellite Zones) and one SQL database.
B.    A single XenDesktop Site with three zones (one Primary Zone and two Satellite Zones) and one SQL database maintained in each zone.
C.    A multi-Site infrastructure, with each city maintaining its own fully functional Site and including at least one Delivery Controller and SQL database in each Site location.
D.    A single XenDesktop Site with three Satellite Zones and implementing with the infrastructure in the Citrix Cloud.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 118
What is the primary Agent Host process that communicates with the Infrastructure Services server and is responsible for enforcing the session settings?

A.    Norskale Agent Host Service.exe
B.    Norskale Broker Service.exe
C.    Agent Cache Utility.exe
D.    Norskale Broker Service Configuration Utility.exe

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer completed the installation and setup of a new Workspace Environment Management (WEM) infrastructure. To begin administrator of the new environment, the engineer must configure the console so that it is longer in the default, disconnected state. Which three steps will the engineer take to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

A.    Enter the name and port for the SQL database server in the New Connection window.
B.    Click “Connect” from within the “Home” tab of the Administration Console ribbon.
C.    Enter the Infrastructure Server Name and administration port information in the New Infrastructure Sever Connection window.
D.    Click “Connect” from within the “About” tab of the Administration Console ribbon.
E.    Launch the Workspace Environment Management Administration Console from the Start menu.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 120
Which three vDisk migration scenarios are supported by Provisioning Services? (Choose three.)

A.    Importing a series of differencing disks originally created on Hyper-V to a Provisioning Services Store.
B.    Exporting a full vDisk chain from a Provisioning Services Store and importing it to a different Store in the same Provisioning Services Farm for the first time.
C.    Exporting a new .AVHDX file from a development Provisioning Services Store and importing it to a production Store in the same Farm that has the rest of the vDisk chain and pre-existing manifest file.
D.    Importing an individual .VHDX file originally created outside of Provisioning Services to a Provisioning Services Store.
E.    Exporting a merged vDisk from a provisioning Services Store and importing it to a Store in a different Provisioning Services Farm for the first time.

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 121
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer is managing a XenApp and XenDesktop environment that has been built with the following site architecture:
– The environment consists of one Site with three zones.
– The primary Zone is located in datacenter A.
– Satellite Zone 1 is located in datacenter B.
– Satellite Zone 2 is located in datacenter C.
– Gateway A is in datacenter A.
– Gateway B is in datacenter B.
– A NetScaler Gateway has been set up in datacenter B. Each Gateway has access to all zones.
– The StoreFront server group is located in the Primary Zone and enumerates all resources within the Site.
– Delivery Controllers are configured in all three zones.
– Application B is available in all zones.
– A User Home has been configured for User 1 in Satellite Zone 2.
– Optimal Gateway Routing has been configured so that Gateway A is preferred for the Primary Zone and Satellite Zone 2; Gateway B is preferred for Satellite Zone 1.
User 1 is located near datacenter A, logs in through NetScaler Gateway and attempts to launch Application B. What will be the expected behavior in this scenario?

A.    Resource enumeration and the HDX connection are established using Gateway B.
B.    Resource enumeration and the HDX connection are established using Gateway A.
C.    Resource enumeration occurs using Gateway B; the HDX connection is established using Gateway A.
D.    Resource enumeration occurs using Gateway B; the HDX connection is established using Gateway A.
E.    Resource enumeration occurs using Gateway A; the HDX connection is established using Gateway B.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 122
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer recently completed the configuration and implementation of various Workspace Environment Management (WEM) actions for different users within an environment. The engineer would like to confirm that all the appropriate configurations were completed for each of the users and decides to launch the Modeling Wizard. What is the next step the engineer can take to confirm that each user’s actions were correctly configured?

A.    Select the account name of the user, complete the wizard and review the output on the Resultant User Groups screen.
B.    Add any group name of which the user is a member, complete the wizard and review the output on the resultant Actions screen.
C.    Select the account name of the user, complete the wizard and review the output on the Resultant Actions screen.
D.    Add any group name of which the user is a member, complete the wizard and review the output on the Resultant User Groups screen.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 123
Which repository can a Citrix Engineer use to store Elastic Layers within the network?

A.    Windows File Server Share
B.    Hypervisor data store
C.    SharePoint site
D.    FTP Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 124
Which component of Workspace Environment Management (WEM) is responsible for enforcing session settings?

A.    Active Directory infrastructure
B.    Agent Host
C.    SQL Database
D.    Infrastructure Services Broker

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 125
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer recently implemented Workspace Environment Management (WEM) into an existing XenDesktop infrastructure to include deploying the Agent Host on several Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. The engineer created two WEM Sites (Site A and Site B) with various global settings set for the users of each site. Upon rolling out the new WEM infrastructure to production the engineer noticed that users from Site B were NOT receiving their global settings within the sessions. What could be the cause of this issue?

A.    Some of the Agent Hosts were NOT configured to point to the Broker Service in Site.
B.    The Agent port setting was NOT configured using GPO.
C.    The Management Agent Host Configuration ADMX template was NOT imported to all VDAs.
D.    A Windows firewall rule on the Infrastructure Services server is blocking the port required to communicate with Site.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126
Scenario:
A Citrix Administrator needs to install a new application on a Desktop OS machine. A new ISO image was added to the CIFS file share that is attached to the storage repository. When the administrator tries to install the application, the ISO is NOT showing as available. Which xe command should the administrator run to make the ISO image available?

A.    sr-scan
B.    sr-update
C.    vm-cd-add
D.    vm-disk-add

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 127
Scenario:
Users complain that they are NOT able to print to the new special barcode printers attached to their client devices. However, they can print to other mapped printers. What should a Citrix Administrator do to resolve this issue?

A.    Configure the Printer Assignments policy setting.
B.    Set the Client printer redirection policy to Allowed.
C.    Configure Default Print Flags on the Desktop OS machines.
D.    Pre-stage manufacturer-provided printer drivers on the Desktop OS machines using pnputil.exe.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 128
A Citrix Administrator needs to retrieve a license from a user who has left the organization. Which command should the administrator execute on the License Server to complete this task without retrieving licenses from other users?

A.    lmutil
B.    lmdown
C.    net stop
D.    udadmin

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 129
A Citrix Administrator deployed a new version of Citrix Receiver to users. Which two tools could the administrator use to determine if connected users are using the new version? (Choose two.)

A.    Citrix Studio
B.    Citrix Director
C.    Desktop Log files
D.    StoreFront Console

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 130
Which two Citrix policy setting must a Citrix Engineer enable to apply Quality of Service (QoS) setting to the HDX protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Multi-Stream user setting
B.    Legacy graphics mode
C.    HDX Adaptive Transport
D.    Multi-Stream computer setting
E.    Framework display channel

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 131
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer selected the Provisioning Services write cache option “Cache on server persistent” for a vDisk. The engineer needs to ensure that users are NOT interrupted if a Provisioning Services server fails. What should the engineer configure to enable high availability (HA) on the Provisioning Services servers?

A.    Enable HA for the Provisioning Services database.
B.    Change the write cache location to cache on the device.
C.    Place the write cache on a Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) share.
D.    Copy the write cache from one server to the second server.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 132
……


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