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NEW QUESTION 1
Suppose you have a table that includes a nested column called “city” inside a column called “person”, but when you try to submit the following query in BigQuery, it gives you an error:
SELECT person FROM `project1.example.table1` WHERE city = “London”
How would you correct the error?

A.    Add “, UNNEST(person)” before the WHERE clause.
B.    Change “person” to “person.city”.
C.    Change “person” to “city.person”.
D.    Add “, UNNEST(city)” before the WHERE clause.

Answer: A
Explanation:
To access the person.city column, you need to “UNNEST(person)” and JOIN it to table1 using a comma.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/reference/standard-sql/migrating-from-legacy-sql#nested_repeated_results

NEW QUESTION 2
What are two of the benefits of using denormalized data structures in BigQuery?

A.    Reduces the amount of data processed, reduces the amount of storage required.
B.    Increases query speed, makes queries simpler.
C.    Reduces the amount of storage required, increases query speed.
D.    Reduces the amount of data processed, increases query speed.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Denormalization increases query speed for tables with billions of rows because BigQuery’s performance degrades when doing JOINs on large tables, but with a denormalized data structure, you don’t have to use JOINs, since all of the data has been combined into one table. Denormalization also makes queries simpler because you do not have to use JOIN clauses. Denormalization increases the amount of data processed and the amount of storage required because it creates redundant data.
https://cloud.google.com/solutions/bigquery-data-warehouse#denormalizing_data

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of these statements about exporting data from BigQuery is false?

A.    To export more than 1 GB of data, you need to put a wildcard in the destination filename.
B.    The only supported export destination is Google Cloud Storage.
C.    Data can only be exported in JSON or Avro format.
D.    The only compression option available is GZIP.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Data can be exported in CSV, JSON, or Avro format. If you are exporting nested or repeated data, then CSV format is not supported.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/exporting-data

NEW QUESTION 4
What are all of the BigQuery operations that Google charges for?

A.    Storage, queries, and streaming inserts.
B.    Storage, queries, and loading data from a file.
C.    Storage, queries, and exporting data.
D.    Queries and streaming inserts.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Google charges for storage, queries, and streaming inserts. Loading data from a file and exporting data are free operations.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/pricing

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not possible using primitive roles?

A.    Give a user viewer access to BigQuery and owner access to Google Compute Engine instances.
B.    Give UserA owner access and UserB editor access for all datasets in a project.
C.    Give a user access to view all datasets in a project, but not run queries on them.
D.    Give GroupA owner access and GroupB editor access for all datasets in a project.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Primitive roles can be used to give owner, editor, or viewer access to a user or group, but they can’t be used to separate data access permissions from job-running permissions.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/access-control#primitive_iam_roles

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of these statements about BigQuery caching is true?

A.    By default, a query’s results are not cached.
B.    BigQuery caches query results for 48 hours.
C.    Query results are cached even if you specify a destination table.
D.    There is no charge for a query that retrieves its results from cache.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When query results are retrieved from a cached results table, you are not charged for the query. BigQuery caches query results for 24 hours, not 48 hours. Query results are not cached if you specify a destination table. A query’s results are always cached except under certain conditions, such as if you specify a destination table.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/querying-data#query-caching

NEW QUESTION 7
Which of these sources can you not load data into BigQuery from?

A.    File upload
B.    Google Drive
C.    Google Cloud Storage
D.    Google Cloud SQL

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can load data into BigQuery from a file upload, Google Cloud Storage, Google Drive, or Google Cloud Bigtable. It is not possible to load data into BigQuery directly from Google Cloud SQL. One way to get data from Cloud SQL to BigQuery would be to export data from Cloud SQL to Cloud Storage and then load it from there.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/loading-data

NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements about Legacy SQL and Standard SQL is not true?

A.    Standard SQL is the preferred query language for BigQuery.
B.    If you write a query in Legacy SQL, it might generate an error if you try to run it with Standard SQL.
C.    One difference between the two query languages is how you specify fully-qualified table names (i.e. table names that include their associated project name).
D.    You need to set a query language for each dataset and the default is Standard SQL.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You do not set a query language for each dataset. It is set each time you run a query and the default query language is Legacy SQL. Standard SQL has been the preferred query language since BigQuery 2.0 was released. In legacy SQL, to query a table with a project-qualified name, you use a colon (:), as a separator. In standard SQL, you use a period, instead. Due to the differences in syntax between the two query languages (such as with project-qualified table names), if you write a query in Legacy SQL, it might generate an error if you try to run it with Standard SQL.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/reference/standard-sql/migrating-from-legacy-sql

NEW QUESTION 9
How would you query specific partitions in a BigQuery table?

A.    Use the DAY column in the WHERE clause
B.    Use the EXTRACT(DAY) clause
C.    Use the PARTITIONTIME pseudo-column in the WHERE clause
D.    Use DATE BETWEEN in the WHERE clause

Answer: C
Explanation:
Partitioned tables include a pseudo column named _PARTITIONTIME that contains a date-based timestamp for data loaded into the table. To limit a query to particular partitions (such as Jan 1st and 2nd of 2017), use a clause similar to this:
WHERE _PARTITIONTIME BETWEEN TIMESTAMP(‘2017-01-01’) AND TIMESTAMP(‘2017-01-02’)
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/partitioned-tables#the_partitiontime_pseudo_column

NEW QUESTION 10
Which SQL keyword can be used to reduce the number of columns processed by BigQuery?

A.    BETWEEN
B.    WHERE
C.    SELECT
D.    LIMIT

Answer: C
Explanation:
SELECT allows you to query specific columns rather than the whole table. LIMIT, BETWEEN, and WHERE clauses will not reduce the number of columns processed by BigQuery.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/launch-checklist#architecture_design_and_development_checklist

NEW QUESTION 11
To give a user read permission for only the first three columns of a table, which access control method would you use?

A.    Primitive role.
B.    Predefined role.
C.    Authorized view.
D.    It’s not possible to give access to only the first three columns of a table.

Answer: C
Explanation:
An authorized view allows you to share query results with particular users and groups without giving them read access to the underlying tables. Authorized views can only be created in a dataset that does not contain the tables queried by the view. When you create an authorized view, you use the view’s SQL query to restrict access to only the rows and columns you want the users to see.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/views#authorized-views

NEW QUESTION 12
What are two methods that can be used to denormalize tables in BigQuery?

A.    1. Split table into multiple tables
2. Use a partitioned table
B.    1. Join tables into one table
2. Use nested repeated fields
C.    1. Use a partitioned table
2. Join tables into one table
D.    1. Use nested repeated fields
2. Use a partitioned table

Answer: B
Explanation:
The conventional method of denormalizing data involves simply writing a fact, along with all its dimensions, into a flat table structure. For example, if you are dealing with sales transactions, you would write each individual fact to a record, along with the accompanying dimensions such as order and customer information. The other method for denormalizing data takes advantage of BigQuery’s native support for nested and repeated structures in JSON or Avro input data. Expressing records using nested and repeated structures can provide a more natural representation of the underlying data. In the case of the sales order, the outer part of a JSON structure would contain the order and customer information, and the inner part of the structure would contain the individual line items of the order, which would be represented as nested, repeated elements.
https://cloud.google.com/solutions/bigquery-data-warehouse#denormalizing_data

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of these is not a supported method of putting data into a partitioned table?

A.    If you have existing data in a separate file for each day, then create a partitioned table and upload each file into the appropriate partition.
B.    Run a query to get the records for a specific day from an existing table and for the destination table, specify a partitioned table ending with the day in the format “$YYYYMMDD”.
C.    Create a partitioned table and stream new records to it every day.
D.    Use ORDER BY to put a table’s rows into chronological order and then change the table’s type to “Partitioned”.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You cannot change an existing table into a partitioned table. You must create a partitioned table from scratch. Then you can either stream data into it every day and the data will automatically be put in the right partition, or you can load data into a specific partition by using “$YYYYMMDD” at the end of the table name.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/partitioned-tables

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of these operations can you perform from the BigQuery Web UI?

A.    Upload a file in SQL format.
B.    Load data with nested and repeated fields.
C.    Upload a 20 MB file.
D.    Upload multiple files using a wildcard.

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can load data with nested and repeated fields using the Web UI. You cannot use the Web UI to:
– Upload a file greater than 10 MB in size
– Upload multiple files at the same time
– Upload a file in SQL format
All three of the above operations can be performed using the “bq” command.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/loading-data

NEW QUESTION 15
Which methods can be used to reduce the number of rows processed by BigQuery?

A.    Splitting tables into multiple tables; putting data in partitions.
B.    Splitting tables into multiple tables; putting data in partitions; using the LIMIT clause.
C.    Putting data in partitions; using the LIMIT clause.
D.    Splitting tables into multiple tables; using the LIMIT clause.

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you split a table into multiple tables (such as one table for each day), then you can limit your query to the data in specific tables (such as for particular days). A better method is to use a partitioned table, as long as your data can be separated by the day. If you use the LIMIT clause, BigQuery will still process the entire table.
https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/partitioned-tables

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NEW QUESTION 16
Why do you need to split a machine learning dataset into training data and test data?

A.    So you can try two different sets of features.
B.    To make sure your model is generalized for more than just the training data.
C.    To allow you to create unit tests in your code.
D.    So you can use one dataset for a wide model and one for a deep model.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The flaw with evaluating a predictive model on training data is that it does not inform you on how well the model has generalized to new unseen data. A model that is selected for its accuracy on the training dataset rather than its accuracy on an unseen test dataset is very likely to have lower accuracy on an unseen test dataset. The reason is that the model is not as generalized. It has specialized to the structure in the training dataset. This is called overfitting.
https://machinelearningmastery.com/a-simple-intuition-for-overfitting/

NEW QUESTION 17
Which of these numbers are adjusted by a neural network as it learns from a training dataset? (Choose two.)

A.    Weights
B.    Biases
C.    Continuous features
D.    Input values

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A neural network is a simple mechanism that’s implemented with basic math. The only difference between the traditional programming model and a neural network is that you let the computer determine the parameters (weights and bias) by learning from training datasets.
https://cloud.google.com/blog/big-data/2016/07/understanding-neural-networks-with-tensorflow-playground

NEW QUESTION 18
The CUSTOM tier for Cloud Machine Learning Engine allows you to specify the number of which types of cluster nodes?

A.    Workers
B.    Masters, workers, and parameter servers
C.    Workers and parameter servers
D.    Parameter servers

Answer: C
Explanation:
The CUSTOM tier is not a set tier, but rather enables you to use your own cluster specification. When you use this tier, set values to configure your processing cluster according to these guidelines:
– You must set TrainingInput.masterType to specify the type of machine to use for your master node.
– You may set TrainingInput.workerCount to specify the number of workers to use.
– You may set TrainingInput.parameterServerCount to specify the number of parameter servers to use.
– You can specify the type of machine for the master node, but you can’t specify more than one master node.
https://cloud.google.com/ml-engine/docs/training-overview#job_configuration_parameters

NEW QUESTION 19
Which software libraries are supported by Cloud Machine Learning Engine?

A.    Theano and TensorFlow
B.    Theano and Torch
C.    TensorFlow
D.    TensorFlow and Torch

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud ML Engine mainly does two things:
– Enables you to train machine learning models at scale by running TensorFlow training applications in the cloud.
– Hosts those trained models for you in the cloud so that you can use them to get predictions about new data.
https://cloud.google.com/ml-engine/docs/technical-overview#what_it_does

NEW QUESTION 20
Which TensorFlow function can you use to configure a categorical column if you don’t know all of the possible values for that column?

A.    categorical_column_with_vocabulary_list
B.    categorical_column_with_hash_bucket
C.    categorical_column_with_unknown_values
D.    sparse_column_with_keys

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you know the set of all possible feature values of a column and there are only a few of them, you can use categorical_column_with_vocabulary_list. Each key in the list will get assigned an auto- incremental ID starting from 0. What if we don’t know the set of possible values in advance? Not a problem. We can use categorical_column_with_hash_bucket instead. What will happen is that each possible value in the feature column occupation will be hashed to an integer ID as we encounter them in training.
https://www.tensorflow.org/tutorials/wide

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements about the Wide & Deep Learning model are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The wide model is used for memorization, while the deep model is used for generalization.
B.    A good use for the wide and deep model is a recommender system.
C.    The wide model is used for generalization, while the deep model is used for memorization.
D.    A good use for the wide and deep model is a small-scale linear regression problem.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Can we teach computers to learn like humans do, by combining the power of memorization and generalization? It’s not an easy question to answer, but by jointly training a wide linear model (for memorization) alongside a deep neural network (for generalization), one can combine the strengths of both to bring us one step closer. At Google, we call it Wide & Deep Learning. It’s useful for generic large-scale regression and classification problems with sparse inputs (categorical features with a large number of possible feature values), such as recommender systems, search, and ranking problems.
https://research.googleblog.com/2016/06/wide-deep-learning-better-together-with.html

NEW QUESTION 22
To run a TensorFlow training job on your own computer using Cloud Machine Learning Engine, what would your command start with?

A.    gcloud ml-engine local train
B.    gcloud ml-engine jobs submit training
C.    gcloud ml-engine jobs submit training local
D.    you can’t run a TensorFlow program on your own computer using Cloud ML Engine

Answer: A
Explanation:
gcloud ml-engine local train – run a Cloud ML Engine training job locally: This command runs the specified module in an environment similar to that of a live Cloud ML Engine Training Job. This is especially useful in the case of testing distributed models, as it allows you to validate that you are properly interacting with the Cloud ML Engine cluster configuration.
https://cloud.google.com/sdk/gcloud/reference/ml-engine/local/train

NEW QUESTION 23
If you want to create a machine learning model that predicts the price of a particular stock based on its recent price history, what type of estimator should you use?

A.    Unsupervised learning
B.    Regressor
C.    Classifier
D.    Clustering estimator

Answer: B
Explanation:
B: Regression is the supervised learning task for modeling and predicting continuous, numeric variables. Examples include predicting real-estate prices, stock price movements, or student test scores.
C: Classification is the supervised learning task for modeling and predicting categorical variables. Examples include predicting employee churn, email spam, financial fraud, or student letter grades.
D: Clustering is an unsupervised learning task for finding natural groupings of observations (i.e. clusters) based on the inherent structure within your dataset. Examples include customer segmentation, grouping similar items in e-commerce, and social network analysis.
https://elitedatascience.com/machine-learning-algorithms

NEW QUESTION 24
Suppose you have a dataset of images that are each labeled as to whether or not they contain a human face. To create a neural network that recognizes human faces in images using this labeled dataset, what approach would likely be the most effective?

A.    Use K-means Clustering to detect faces in the pixels.
B.    Use feature engineering to add features for eyes, noses, and mouths to the input data.
C.    Use deep learning by creating a neural network with multiple hidden layers to automatically detect features of faces.
D.    Build a neural network with an input layer of pixels, a hidden layer, and an output layer with two categories.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Traditional machine learning relies on shallow nets, composed of one input and one output layer, and at most one hidden layer in between. More than three layers (including input and output) qualifies as “deep” learning. So deep is a strictly defined, technical term that means more than one hidden layer. In deep-learning networks, each layer of nodes trains on a distinct set of features based on the previous layer’s output. The further you advance into the neural net, the more complex the features your nodes can recognize, since they aggregate and recombine features from the previous layer. A neural network with only one hidden layer would be unable to automatically recognize high-level features of faces, such as eyes, because it wouldn’t be able to “build” these features using previous hidden layers that detect low-level features, such as lines. Feature engineering is difficult to perform on raw image data. K-means Clustering is an unsupervised learning method used to categorize unlabeled data.
https://deeplearning4j.org/neuralnet-overview

NEW QUESTION 25
What are two of the characteristics of using online prediction rather than batch prediction? (Choose two.)

A.    It is optimized to handle a high volume of data instances in a job and to run more complex models.
B.    Predictions are returned in the response message.
C.    Predictions are written to output files in a Cloud Storage location that you specify.
D.    It is optimized to minimize the latency of serving predictions.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Online prediction:
– Optimized to minimize the latency of serving predictions.
– Predictions returned in the response message.
– Optimized to handle a high volume of instances in a job and to run more complex models.
– Predictions written to output files in a Cloud Storage location that you specify.
https://cloud.google.com/ml-engine/docs/tensorflow/prediction-overview#online_prediction_versus_batch_prediction

NEW QUESTION 26
Which of these are examples of a value in a sparse vector? (Choose two.)

A.    [0, 5, 0, 0, 0, 0]
B.    [0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1]
C.    [0, 1]
D.    [1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0]

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Categorical features in linear models are typically translated into a sparse vector in which each possible value has a corresponding index or id. For example, if there are only three possible eye colors you can represent ‘eye_color’ as a length 3 vector: ‘brown’ would become [1, 0, 0], ‘blue’ would become [0, 1, 0] and ‘green’ would become [0, 0, 1]. These vectors are called “sparse” because they may be very long, with many zeros, when the set of possible values is very large (such as all English words). [0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 1] is not a sparse vector because it has two 1s in it. A sparse vector contains only a single 1. [0, 5, 0, 0, 0, 0] is not a sparse vector because it has a 5 in it. Sparse vectors only contain 0s and 1s.
https://www.tensorflow.org/tutorials/linear#feature_columns_and_transformations

NEW QUESTION 27
How can you get a neural network to learn about relationships between categories in a categorical feature?

A.    Create a multi-hot column
B.    Create a one-hot column
C.    Create a hash bucket
D.    Create an embedding column

Answer: D
Explanation:
There are two problems with one-hot encoding. First, it has high dimensionality, meaning that instead of having just one value, like a continuous feature, it has many values, or dimensions. This makes computation more time-consuming, especially if a feature has a very large number of categories. The second problem is that it doesn’t encode any relationships between the categories. They are completely independent from each other, so the network has no way of knowing which ones are similar to each other. Both of these problems can be solved by representing a categorical feature with an embedding column. The idea is that each category has a smaller vector with, let’s say, 5 values in it. But unlike a one-hot vector, the values are not usually 0. The values are weights, similar to the weights that are used for basic features in a neural network. The difference is that each category has a set of weights (5 of them in this case). You can think of each value in the embedding vector as a feature of the category. So, if two categories are very similar to each other, then their embedding vectors should be very similar too.
https://cloudacademy.com/google/introduction-to-google-cloud-machine-learning-engine-course/a-wide-and-deep-model.html

NEW QUESTION 28
If a dataset contains rows with individual people and columns for year of birth, country, and income, how many of the columns are continuous and how many are categorical?

A.    1 continuous and 2 categorical
B.    3 categorical
C.    3 continuous
D.    2 continuous and 1 categorical

Answer: D
Explanation:
The columns can be grouped into two types — categorical and continuous columns:
1. A column is called categorical if its value can only be one of the categories in a finite set. For example, the native country of a person (U.S., India, Japan, etc.) or the education level (high school, college, etc.) are categorical columns.
2. A column is called continuous if its value can be any numerical value in a continuous range. For example, the capital gain of a person (e.g. $14,084) is a continuous column.
Year of birth and income are continuous columns. Country is a categorical column. You could use bucketization to turn year of birth and/or income into categorical features, but the raw columns are continuous.
https://www.tensorflow.org/tutorials/wide#reading_the_census_data

NEW QUESTION 29
Which of the following are examples of hyperparameters? (Choose two.)

A.    Number of hidden layers
B.    Number of nodes in each hidden layer
C.    Biases
D.    Weights

Answer: AB
Explanation:
If model parameters are variables that get adjusted by training with existing data, your hyperparameters are the variables about the training process itself. For example, part of setting up a deep neural network is deciding how many “hidden” layers of nodes to use between the input layer and the output layer, as well as how many nodes each layer should use. These variables are not directly related to the training data at all. They are configuration variables. Another difference is that parameters change during a training job, while the hyperparameters are usually constant during a job. Weights and biases are variables that get adjusted during the training process, so they are not hyperparameters.
https://cloud.google.com/ml-engine/docs/hyperparameter-tuning-overview

NEW QUESTION 30
Which of the following are feature engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A.    Hidden feature layers
B.    Feature prioritization
C.    Crossed feature columns
D.    Bucketization of a continuous feature

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Selecting and crafting the right set of feature columns is key to learning an effective model. Bucketization is a process of dividing the entire range of a continuous feature into a set of consecutive bins/buckets, and then converting the original numerical feature into a bucket ID (as a categorical feature) depending on which bucket that value falls into. Using each base feature column separately may not be enough to explain the data. To learn the differences between different feature combinations, we can add crossed feature columns to the model.
https://www.tensorflow.org/tutorials/wide#selecting_and_engineering_features_for_the_model

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QUESTION 1
To ensure that the Traps VDI tool can obtain verdicts for all unknown files what are the things that needs to be checked? Assuming ESM Console and ESM Server are on different servers. (Choose two.)

A.    ESM Server can access WildFire Server.
B.    Endpoint can access WildFire Server.
C.    ESM Console can access WildFire Server.
D.    Endpoint can access ESM Server.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which set of modules must be loaded and configured when using Metasploit?

A.    Attacker, payload
B.    Exploit, payload
C.    Exploit, malware
D.    Malware, host

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which MSI command line parameters will successfully install a Traps agent using SSL and pointed to server ESM?

A.    msiexec /i c:\traps.msi /qn TRAPS_SERVER=ESM USE_SSL_PRIMARY=1
B.    msiexec /i c:\traps.msi /qn CYVERA_SERVER=ESM USE_SSL_PRIMARY=1
C.    msiexec /i c:\traps.msi /qn ESM_SERVER=ESM USE_SSL_PRIMARY=1
D.    msiexec /x c:\traps.msi /qn SERVER=ESM USE_SSL_PRIMARY=1

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two enhanced key usage purposes are necessary when creating an SSL certificate for an ESM server? (Choose two.)

A.    File Recovery
B.    Server Authentication
C.    Client Authentication
D.    Key Recovery

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
In a scenario that macOS Traps logs failed to be uploaded to the forensic folder, where will the user on the macOS host be able to find to collected logs?

A.    /ProgramData/Cyvera/Logs
B.    /ProgramData/Cyvera/Everyone/Temp
C.    /Library/Application Support/Cyvera/BITS Uploads/
D.    /Library/Application Support/PaloAltoNetworks/Traps/Upload/

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Traps agents use a default password for uninstallation in the event that they never communicate with their ESM server. Identify which of the following password is correct?

A.    PaloAlto!
B.    Uninstall1
C.    No password is required
D.    Password1

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Uploads to the ESM Sever are failing. How can the mechanism for forensic and WildFire uploads be tested from the endpoint?

A.    Use BITS commands in PowerShell to send a file to the ESM Server.
B.    Use curl to execute a POST operation.
C.    Use SCP commands from a ssh client to transfer a file to the ESM Server.
D.    Click Check-in now in the agent console.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The administrator has added the following whitelist to the WildFire Executable Files policy:
*\mysoftware.exe
What will be the result of this whitelist?

A.    users will not be able to run mysoftware.exe
B.    mysoftware.exe will be uploaded to WildFire for analysis
C.    mysoftware.exe will not be analyzed by WildFire regardless of the file location
D.    mysoftware.exe will not be analyzed by WildFire, but only if executed from the C drive

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In a scenario where winword.exe, Microsoft Word application, is behaving abnormally, how would the administrator verify if Traps DLLs are injected to the process?

A.    Run cytool policy winword.exe.
B.    Use Process Explore to find Traps DLLs injected to the process.
C.    Open the add-ins tab in Word’s options to find Traps add-in.
D.    Use ‘Ninja mode’ in the policy editing screen in the ESM to find winword.exe.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Assume a Child Process Protection rule exists for powershell.exe in Traps v 4.0. Among the items on the blacklist is ipconfig.exe. How can an administrator permit powershell.exe to execute ipconfig.exe without altering the rest of the blacklist?

A.    Add ipconfig.exe to the Global Child Processes Whitelist, under Restriction settings.
B.    Uninstall and reinstall the traps agent.
C.    Create a second Child Process Protection rule for powershell.exe to whitelist ipconfig.exe.
D.    Remove ipconfig.exe from the rule’s blacklist.

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which software category is most likely to cause a conflict with the Traps agent?

A.    Exploit prevention software
B.    Web browser software
C.    Web meeting and collaboration software
D.    Full disk encryption software

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A deployment contains some machines that are not part of the domain. The Accounting and Sales departments are two of these. How can a policy of WildFire notification be applied to Accounting, and a policy of WildFire prevention be applied to Sales, while not affecting any other WildFire policies?

A.    Create the rules and use the Objects tab to add Accounting and Sales to each rule they should apply to.
B.    Create a condition for an application found on an Accounting machine.
Use that condition for the Accounting groups rule, and create the rule tor Sales without any conditions.
C.    Create two rules for WildFire: one for prevention, and one for notification.
Make sure the Accounting rule is numbered higher.
D.    Create group-specific registry entries on endpoints.
Use these registry entries to create conditions for the WildFire rules.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An administrator is concerned about rogue installs of Internet Explorer. Which policy can be created to assure that Internet Explorer can only run from the \Program Files \Internet Explorer \directory?

A.    An execution path policy to blacklist iexplore.exe, and whitelist entry for %programfiles%\iexplore.exe.
B.    An execution path policy to blacklist *\iexplore.exe. Trusted signers will allow the default iexplore.exe.
C.    A whitelist of *\iexplore.exe with an execution path restriction, and a blackfirst of %system%\iexplore.exe.
D.    An execution path policy to blacklist *\iexplore.exe, and a whitelist entry for %programfiles%\Internet Explorer\iexplore.exe.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
When planning to test a software exploit using a Metasploit module, what two options should be considered about the victim host to ensure success? (Choose two.)

A.    USB port version of the victim host.
B.    Speed and make of the victim’s RAM.
C.    Software version of the target application.
D.    Platform, architecture, and patch level of the victim host.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
An administrator receives an alert indicating the ESM service is not starting on the ESM Server. When the administrator tries to start the service manually, the administrator receives an error:
“The Endpoint Security Manager service on Local Computer started and then stopped.”
What is the cause of the failure?

A.    The Account assigned to the service does not have “Log on as a batch job” permissions on the machine.
B.    The Account assigned to the service does not have “Log on as a service” permissions on the machine.
C.    The Account assigned to the service is not the Local Administrator on the machine.
D.    The Account assigned to the service is not an Active Directory Domain user.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 16
The administrator has downloaded the Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip file. What are the next steps needed to successfully install the Traps 4.x for macOS agent?

A.    Push the Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip to the target endpoint(s), unzip it, and execute Traps.pkg.
B.    Unzip the Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip, push the Traps pkg file to the target endpoint(s) and execute Traps.pkg.
C.    Create a one time action to install the Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip file on the target endpoint(s).
D.    Create an installation package using Traps_macOS_4.x.x on ESM, download the installationpackage.zip, push the installationpackage.zip to target endpoint(s), unzip it, and execute Traps.pkg.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
The ESM policy is set to upload unknowns to WildFire. However, when an unknown is executed the Upload status in ESM Console never displays “Upload in progress”, and the verdict remains local analysis or unknown. Even clicking the upload button and checking in does not resolve the issue. A line in the log file suggests not being able to download a file from “https:/ESMSERVER/BitsUploads/…” to “C:\ProgramData\Cyvera\Temp\…”. Which solution fixes this problem?

A.    Restart BITS service on the endpoint.
B.    Restart BITS service on ESM.
C.    Remove and reinstall all the agents without SSL.
D.    In the ESM Console, use the FQDN in multi ESM.

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
An administrator receives a number of email alerts indicating WildFire has prevented a malicious activity. All the prevention events refer to launching an Install Wizard that has received a benign verdict from WildFire. All prevention events are reported on a subset of endpoints, that have recently been migrated Mom another Traps deployment. Which two troubleshooting actions are relevant to this investigation? (Choose two.)

A.    Check that the servers xml file has been cleared on the migrated endpoints.
B.    Check that the ClientInfoHash tag has been cleared on the migrated endpoints.
C.    Check that the actions xml file has not been cleared on the migrated endpoints.
D.    Check that the WildFire cache has been cleared on the migrated endpoints.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Once an administrator has successfully instated a Content Update, how is the Content Update applied to endpoint?

A.    After Installation on the ESM, an Agent License renewal is required in order to trigger relevant updates.
B.    After installation on the ESM, relevant updates occur at the next Heartbeat communication from each endpoint.
C.    Installation of a Content Update triggers a proactive push of the update by the ESM server to all endpoints with licensed Traps Agents within the Domain.
D.    The Traps Agent must be reinstalled on the endpoint in order to apply the content update. Existing Agents will not be able to take advantage of content updates.

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An administrator can check which two indicators to verity that Traps for Mac is running correctly on an installed endpoint? (Choose two.)

A.    Use cytool from the command line interface to display the running Traps agent services.
B.    In the Activity Monitor, verify that CyveraSecvice is running.
C.    Ping other Traps agents from the macOS agent.
D.    Verity that the Traps agent icon is displayed on the macOS finder bar.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
A company discovers through the agent health display in ESM Console that a certain Traps agent is not communicating with ESM Server. Administrators suspect that the problem relates to TLS/SSL. Which troubleshooting step determines if this is an SSL issue?

A.    From the agent run the command: telnet (hostname) (port).
B.    Check that the Traps service is running.
C.    From the agent run the command: ping (hostname).
D.    Browse to the ESM hostname from the affected agent.

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
When installing the ESM, what role must the database user be assigned in Microsoft SQL?

A.    db_owner
B.    db_secuirtyadmin
C.    db_datawriter
D.    db_accessadmin

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A company wants to implement a new Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) in which the endpoints are protected with Traps. It must select a VDI platform that is supported by Palo Alto Networks for Traps use. Which two platform are supported? (Choose two.)

A.    Citrix XenDesktop
B.    VMware Horizon View
C.    Listeq
D.    Nimboxx

Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
A customer has an environment with the following items:
— 1,000 agents communicating over SSL with two servers – one containing the ESM Server and another one where the ESM Console is installed
— BitsUploads resides on the ESM Console server
— ESM Server and Console are using the default pods tor communication
In a scenario where a file is failing to be uploaded from macOS, which three reasons could be directly related to the failure? (Choose three.)

A.    Traps agent is not able to check in with the ESM Server.
B.    The rate of upload is lower than 100Kb/S.
C.    The BITS address in the ESM is incorrect.
D.    Port 2125 is blocked on the server which hosts BitsUploads.
E.    Port 443 is blocked on the server which hosts BitsUploads.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 25
Which two are valid optional parameters when upgrading Traps agent from the ESM console using Upgrade from path? (Choose two.)

A.    Conditions
B.    Processes
C.    ESM Server
D.    Target Objects
E.    Features

Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
Which version of .NET Framework is required as a prerequisite when installing Traps agent on Windows 7?

A.    .NET Framework 4.5
B.    .NET Framework 3.5.1
C.    .NET Framework 2.0
D.    .NET Framework 4.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Files are not getting a WildFire verdict. What is one way to determine whether there is a BITS issue?

A.    Check the upload status in the hash control screen.
B.    Run a telnet command between Traps agent and ESM Server on port 2125.
C.    Use PowerShell to test upload using HTTP POST method.
D.    Initiate a “Send support file” from the agent.

Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which is the proper order of tasks that an administrator needs to perform to successfully create and install Traps 4.x for macOS agents?

A.    Download ClientUpgradePackage_4.x.x.zip from the support portal.
Copy ClientUpgradePackage_4.x.x.zip to target endpoint.
Unzip and run traps pkg.
B.    Download ClientUpgradePackage.zip from the support portal.
Create installation package on ESM using .zip file, download installpackage.zip file.
Copy installpackage.zip to target endpoint.
Unzip and run traps pkg.
C.    Download Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip from the support portal.
Copy Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip to target endpoint.
Unzip and run traps pkg.
D.    Download Traps_macOS_4.x.x.zip from the support portal.
Create installation package on ESM using .zip file, download installpackage.zip file.
Copy installpackage.zip to target endpoint.
Unzip and run traps pkg.

Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A large manufacturer is planning to roll out Traps to 75,000 endpoints. Their environment consists of three major sites with 24,000 endpoints each, plus about 3,000 remote endpoints in smaller remote locations using always-on VPN connections to a single one of the major sites. The customer wants to minimize network traffic between the major sites, but all endpoints have internet access. The customer is looking for a centrally managed solution with common reporting and management for all endpoints in the environment. Which design option would be appropriate for this environment?

A.    Place the Traps database, ESM Console and two ESM core servers in the large site hosting the VPN gateway, and force all endpoints to use VPN at all times.
B.    Place the Traps database, ESM Console and seven ESM core servers in a public-cloud environment where the ESM Core servers are accessible from the internet.
C.    Place a Traps database, ESM Console and an ESM core server in each of the three large sites.
D.    Place the Traps database and ESM Console in one of the major sites, and one ESM core server in each of the three major sites.

Answer: D

QUESTION 30
An administrator has a critical group of systems running Windows XP SP3 that cannot be upgraded. The administrator wants to evaluate the ability of Traps to protect these systems and the word processing applications running on them. How should an administrator perform this evaluation?

A.    Run a known 2015 flash exploit on a Windows XP SP3 VM, and run an exploitation tool that acts as a listener. Use the results to demonstrate Traps capabilities.
B.    Run word processing exploits in a Windows 7 VM in a controlled and isolated environment. Document indicators of compromise and compare to Traps protection capabilities.
C.    Prepare a Windows 7 VM. Gather information about the word processing applications, determine if some of them are vulnerable, and prepare a working exploit for at least one of them. Execute with an exploitation tool.
D.    Gather information about the word processing applications and run them on a Windows XP SP3 VM. Determine if any of the applications are vulnerable and run the exploit with an exploitation tool.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What are the three benefits of the Palo Alto Networks migration tool? (Choose three.)

A. Conversion of existing firewall policies to Palo Alto Networks NGFW policies.
B. Analysis of existing firewall environment.
C. Assistance with the transition from POC to Production.
D. Elimination of the need for consulting/professional services.
E. The migration tool provides App-ID enhancements to improve Technical Support calls.

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
Palo Alto Networks publishes updated Command and Control signatures. How frequently should the related signatures schedule be set?

A. Once an hour
B. Once every minute
C. Once a week
D. Once a day

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A service provider has acquired a pair of PA-7080s for its data center to secure its customer base’s traffic. The server provider’s traffic is largely generated by smart phones and averages 6,000,000 concurrent sessions. Which Network Processing Card should be recommended in the Bill of Materials?

A. PA-7000-40G-NPC
B. PA-7000-20GQ-NPC
C. PA-7000-20GQXM-NPC
D. PA-7000-20G-NPC

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A customer is worried about unknown attacks, but due to privacy and regulatory issues, won’t implement SSL decrypt. How can the platform still address this customer’s concern?

A. It pivots the conversation to Traps on the endpoint preventing unknown exploits and malware there instead.
B. It bypasses the need to decrypt SSL Traffic by analyzing the file while still encrypted.
C. It shows how AutoFocus can provide visibility into targeted attacks at the industry sector.
D. It overcomes reservations about SSL decrypt by offloading to a higher capacity firewall to help with the decrypt throughput.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Where are three tuning considerations when building a security policy to protect against modern day attacks? (Choose three.)

A. Create an anti-spyware profile to block all spyware.
B. Create a vulnerability protection profile to block all the vulnerabilities with severity low and higher.
C. Create an SSL Decryption policy to decrypt 100% of the traffic.
D. Create an antivirus profile to block all content that matches and antivirus signature.
E. Create a WildFire profile to schedule file uploads during low network usage windows.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two designs require virtual systems? (Choose two.)

A. A shared gateway interface that does not need a full administrative boundary.
B. A virtual router as a replacement for an internet-facing router.
C. A single physical firewall shared by different organizations, each with unique traffic control needs.
D. A VMware NSX deployment that needs micros segmentation.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which three network events are highlighted through correlation objects as a potential security risks? (Choose three.)

A. Identified vulnerability exploits.
B. Suspicious traffic patterns.
C. Known command-and-control activity.
D. Launch of an identified malware executable file.
E. Endpoints access files from a removable drive.

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
A customer is adopting Microsoft Office 365 but is concerned about the potential security exposure that such a move could mean. The security analyst suggests using Aperture and the Palo Alto Network firewall together to provide data and network security. What are the two reasons this solution has been suggested? (Choose two.)

A. The firewall secures data in transit between the network and the cloud.
B. Aperture prevents users from using non-sanctioned SaaS applications.
C. The firewall scans data that resides in the cloud for malware.
D. Aperture scans data that resides in the cloud for sensitive information.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which license is required to receive weekly dynamic updates to the correlation objects on the firewall and Panorama?

A. WildFire on the firewall, and AutoFocus on Panorama.
B. URL Filtering on the firewall, and MindMeld on Panorama.
C. Threat Prevention on the firewall, and Support on Panorama.
D. GlobalProtect on the firewall, and Threat Prevention on Panorama.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What two advantages of the DNS Sinkholing feature? (Choose two.)

A. It can be deployed independently of an Anti-Spyware Profile.
B. It is monitoring DNS requests passively for malware domains.
C. It can work upstream from the internal DNS server.
D. It is forging DNS replies to known malicious domains.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/71/pan-os/pan-os/threat-prevention/dns-sinkholing

QUESTION 11
Which Palo Alto Networks security platform component should an administrator use to extend policies to remote users are not connecting to the internet from behind a firewall?

A. Threat Intelligence Cloud
B. Traps
C. GlobalProtect
D. Aperture

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A specific URL keeps appearing in URL filtering log entries, it was blocked successfully, but the administrator would like to investigate further. In which two ways would AutoFocus help this administrator? (Choose two.)

A. Generate a list of IP addresses for use in Dynamic Address Groups on the firewall.
B. Identify malicious files associated with this URL.
C. Generate a correlation object that can be used to monitor associated activities.
D. Identify malware campaigns associated with this URL.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
How do Highly Suspicious artifacts in-AutoFocus help identify when an unknown, potential zero-day, targeted attack occur to allow one to adjust the security posture?

A. Highly Suspicious artifacts are associated with High-Risk payloads that are inflicting massive amounts of damage to end customers.
B. All High Risk artifacts are automatically classified as Highly Suspicious.
C. Highly Suspicious artifacts are High Risk artifacts that have been seen in very few samples.
D. Highly Suspicious artifacts have been seen infecting a broad, significant range of companies.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
DNS sinkholing helps identify infected hosts on the protected network using DNS traffic in situations where the firewall cannot see the infected client’s DNS query (that is, the firewall cannot see the originator of DNS query). Which of the following Statements is true?

A. DNS Sinkholing requires the Vulnerability Protection Profile be enabled.
B. Sinkholing malware DNS queries solves this visibilty problem by forging responses to the client host queries directed at fake domains created in a controlled “Fake Internet” called Zanadu which designed for testing and honeypots.
C. Infected hosts can then be easily identified in the traffic logs because any host that attempts to connect the sinkhole IP address are most likely infected with malware.
D. DNS Sinkholing requires a license SinkHole license in order to activate.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A customer is targeted by a true zero-day, targeted attack. However, the customer is protected by the Palo Alto Networks security platform. The attack leverages a previously unknown vulnerability in IE but utilizes existing hacking techniques on the endpoint. It is transported over standard HTTP traffic and conforms to the HTML standards. It then attempts to download from a website, compromised specifically for this attack, a custom piece of malware to run on the endpoints. Which element of the platform will stop this attack?

A. App-ID
B. PAN-DB
C. Traps
D. WildFire

Answer: D

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QUESTION 16
An SE is preparing an SLR report for a school and wants to emphasize URL filtering capabilities because the school is concerned that its students are accessing inappropriate websites. The URL categories being chosen by default in the report are not highlighting these types of websites. How should the SE show the customer the firewall can detect that these websites are being accessed?

A. Remove unwanted categories listed under “High Risk” and use relevant information.
B. Create a footnote within the SLR generation tool.
C. Edit the Key-Findings text to list the other types of categories that may be of interest.
D. Produce the report and edit the PDF manually.

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What are the two group options for database when creating a custom report? (Choose two.)

A. Oracle
B. SQL
C. Detailed Logs
D. Summary Databases

Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
A customer is concerned about malicious activity occurring directly on their endpoints and not visible to their firewalls. Which three actions does Traps execute during a security event beyond ensuring the prevention of this activity? (Choose three.)

A. Informs WildFire and sends up a signature to the Cloud.
B. Collects forensic information about the event.
C. Communicates the status of the endpoint to the ESM.
D. Notifies the user about the event.
E. Remediates the event by deleting the malicious file.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
https://investors.paloaltonetworks.com/node/11156/html

QUESTION 19
What is the HA limitation specific to the PA-200 appliance?

A. Can be deployed in either an active/passive or active/active HA pair.
B. Can only synchronize configurations and does not support session synchronization.
C. Has a dedicated HA1 and HA2 ports, but no HA3.
D. Is the only Palo Alto Networks firewall that does not have any HA capabilities.

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
How many recursion levels are supported for compressed files in PAN-OS 8.0?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3

Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A customer is seeing an increase in the number of malicious files coming in from undetectable sources in their network. These files include doc and .pdf file types. The customer believes that someone has clicked an email that might have contained a malicious file type. The customer already uses a firewall with User-ID enabled. Which feature must also be enabled to prevent these attacks?

A. WildFire
B. App-ID
C. Custom App-ID rules
D. Content Filtering

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two components must to be configured within User-ID on a new firewall that has been implemented? (Choose two.)

A. Group Mapping
B. 802.1X Authentication
C. Proxy Authentication
D. User Mapping

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/71/pan-os/pan-os/user-id/enable-user-id

QUESTION 23
When a customer creates a new SLR report, what is the first step in generating a proper SLR report once logged in to the Partner Portal?

A. Click the “Track my deals” button to view your open Opportunities.
B. Scroll down and click the “New Security Lifecycle Review” button.
C. Click the “Select files…” button and find the relevant statsdump file on your local machine and click Upload.
D. Select the appropriate Opportunity.

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which three items contain information about Command and Control (C&C) hosts? (Choose three.)

A. Threat logs
B. Data filtering logs
C. Botnet reports
D. SaaS reports
E. WildFire analysts reports

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Which option is required to activate/retrieve a Device Management License on the M.100 Appliance after the Auth Codes have been activated on the Palo Alto Networks Support Site?

A. Generate a Tech Support File and call PANTAC.
B. Select Device > Licenses and click activate feature using authorization code.
C. Select PANORAMA > Licenses and click Activate feature using authorization code.
D. Generate a State Dump File and upload it to the Palo Alto Network support portal.

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What are three considerations when deploying User-ID? (Choose three.)

A. Enable WMI probing in high security networks.
B. User-ID can support a maximum of 15 hops.
C. Specify included and excluded networks when configuring User-ID.
D. Use a dedicated service account for User-ID services with the minimal permissions necessary.
E. Only enable User-ID on trusted zones.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 27
A price sensitive customer wants to prevent attacks on a windows 2008 Virtual Server. The server will max out at 100Mbps but needs to have 45,000 sessions to connect to multiple hosts within a data center. Which VM instance should be used to secure the network by this customer?

A. VM-200
B. VM-100
C. VM-300
D. VM-50

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which variable is used to regulate the rate of file submission to WildFire?

A. Based on the purchase license.
B. Maximum number of files per minute.
C. Available bandwidth.
D. Maximum number of files per day.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/80/wildfire/wf_admin/submit-files-for-wildfire-analysis/firewall-file-forwarding-capacity-by-model

QUESTION 29
Which four steps of the cyberattack lifecycle dose the Palo Alto Networks platform present? (Choose four.)

A. Breach the perimeter
B. Exfiltrate data
C. Weaponries vulnerabilities
D. Deliver the malware
E. Recon the target
F. Lateral movement

Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 30
Which certificate can be used to ensure that traffic coming from a specific server remains encrypted?

A. Forward entrust
B. SSL exclude certificate
C. Forward trust
D. SSL inbound inspection

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/80/pan-os/web-interface-help/device/device-certificate-management-ssl-decryption-exclusion

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QUESTION 1
Which authentication method supports Mobile SSO?

A.    LDAP
B.    Fingerprint authentication
C.    Integrated Windows Authentication
D.    SAML

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which three VMware products can integrate with the VMware Unified Access Gateway? (Choose three.)

A.    VMware AirWatch
B.    VMware Horizon
C.    VMware Mirage
D.    VMware Fusion
E.    VMware NSX

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 3
Where can an administrator subscribe to reports in Workspace ONE?

A.    VMware Workspace ONE app
B.    Workspace ONE Identity Manager Console
C.    VMware Unified Access Gateway
D.    Workspace ONE UEM Console

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two resources can be enabled from Horizon Cloud for Workspace ONE users? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware Horizon Application Management Bundle
B.    VMware Horizon Desktops
C.    VMware Horizon Applications
D.    VMware Horizon Workspace Suite
E.    VMware Horizon ThinApp

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which three occur on an Android device when it goes through Adaptive Management and becomes Workspace ONE Managed? (Choose three.)

A.    The Android for Work version of VMware Workspace ONE app gets activated.
B.    The Android device immediately goes through Android OS update.
C.    The Android device prompts user to backup internal storage to Google Cloud.
D.    The Work folder gets created on the Android device.
E.    The original VMware Workspace ONE app gets activated.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following criteria can an admin use to create a smart group? (Choose three.)

A.    User Group
B.    Device Serial Number
C.    Device IMEI Number
D.    Platform and Operating System
E.    Device Model
F.    Device Compliance Status

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
What three on-premise components require a Public IP address? (Choose three.)

A.    AirWatch Cloud Connector (ACC)
B.    Database Server
C.    Secure Email Gateway (SEG)
D.    Unified Access Gateway – Content Gateway service
E.    Unified Access Gateway – VMware Tunnel service
F.    Integration Broker

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 8
Which two ways can AirWatch Managed Content be assigned to users? (Choose two.)

A.    Smart Group
B.    Functional Group
C.    Organization Group
D.    Domains Group
E.    User Group

Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which productivity application requires the device to be Workspace ONE managed?

A.    VMware Content Locker
B.    VMware Boxer
C.    VMware Tunnel
D.    VMware Browser

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What setting would need to be modified to prevent a user from performing an enterprise wipe on their device from the Self Service Portal?

A.    AirWatch Agent Setting
B.    User Role
C.    Device Ownership type
D.    Device Restriction profile

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A company is currently using PowerShell integration with Office 365 as an email solution. Which PowerShell command can be used for retrieving a list of devices in your organization that have active Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync partnerships?

A.    Get-ActiveSyncDeviceClass
B.    Get-Mailbox –Identity $identity
C.    Get-MobileDevice –Mailbox $mailbox
D.    Set–ActiveSyncMailBoxPolicy

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How many access policy sets can an administrator associate to a web app?

A.    1
B.    3
C.    4
D.    2

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A company has an organization group which is used only to register devices for executives. The administrator has noticed that employees are using that Group ID to register their own devices without authorization. How can the administrator prevent future registrations into this organization group?

A.    Create a Terms of Use and for registration into the organization group.
B.    Publish a Restriction Profile to devices in the organization group.
C.    Make the Group ID blank for the organization group.
D.    Create an enrollment restriction for the organization group.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What Android device requirement must be met to push an application from the Google Play Store and have it silently install on a device?

A.    Register with Android Enterprise
B.    Google Developer access
C.    G-Suite compatible
D.    Supervised

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which uses the built-in Kerberos Distribution Center service to authenticate requests?

A.    Android Mobile SSO
B.    VMware Unified Access Gateway
C.    iOS Mobile SSO
D.    Windows Hello

Answer: C

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QUESTION 16
What are two methods by which compliance is measured? (Choose two.)

A.    Engine Compliance
B.    Root Compliance
C.    Enterprise Compliance
D.    Real Time Compliance
E.    Cloud Compliance

Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
On which device operating system does the Email Notification Service (ENS) provide near real-time push notifications for new emails?

A.    iOS
B.    Windows
C.    Android
D.    MacOS

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What configuration must an administrator setup to allow users to add their own network shares to VMware Content Locker through the Self Service Portal?

A.    Admin Repository
B.    Manual Template
C.    Personal Content
D.    Automatic Template

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What two ways can an administrator use to safeguard sensitive email content? (Choose two.)

A.    Implement the Unified Access Gateway.
B.    Configure the Device Enrollment Program.
C.    Implement SEG Proxy.
D.    Deploy email compliance policies.
E.    Deploy device token authentication.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
What does an administrator need to do to require an end user to accept the Terms of Use (TOU) prior to completing the installation of a Workspace Services Profile?

A.    Enrollment Terms of Use Acceptance.
B.    Enrollment End User License Agreement.
C.    Require an optional prompt.
D.    Register with Apple DEP.

Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which Linux command grants the current user account temporary root privileges for a short period of time?

A.    chmod u+x
B.    ./
C.    chmod 777
D.    sudo

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which two configurations can prevent unauthorized email access on non Workspace ONE registered devices? (Choose two.)

A.    Mobile Access Gateway
B.    Mobile Application Management
C.    Conditional Access
D.    Powershell
E.    VMware Enterprise Connector

Answer: BE

QUESTION 23
Which email policies can be enforced on a device not registered with Workspace Services, but is still trying to access email through the Secure Email Gateway?

A.    Device must be in a specific geo-location.
B.    Device must be password protected.
C.    Device must be using an approved mail client.
D.    Device must not be compromised.

Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What domain attribute must be included to meet the SAML assertion requirement for Just-In-Time provisioning in Workspace ONE?

A.    email
B.    userName
C.    firstName
D.    lastName

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What two telecom data settings can be enabled and collected by an administrator? (Choose two.)

A.    Websites visited while using cellular data.
B.    The total voice minutes used for all cellular calls.
C.    The telephone numbers dialed and received.
D.    The SMS message content sent and received.
E.    The cellular data use in terms of total bytes sent and received.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
What on-premises component is needed to integrate Horizon VDI with Workspace ONE?

A.    VMware Tunnel
B.    VMware Enterprise System Connector
C.    AirWatch Content Gateway
D.    VMware Unified Access Gateway

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
The Workspace ONE application requires what minimum level of device security before allowing users to log in on iOS or Android devices?

A.    Biometric authentication.
B.    Mobile Device Management.
C.    Six digit alphanumeric device passcode.
D.    Four digit numeric device PIN.

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What three components does the Workspace ONE configuration wizard set up for the administrator? (Choose three.)

A.    API connectivity between VMware Identity Manager and Horizon
B.    Mobile Single Sign-On
C.    Workspace ONE catalog
D.    API connectivity between AirWatch and VMware Identity Manager
E.    Conditional access policies
F.    API connectivity between AirWatch and Horizon

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
What two steps would an administrator take to troubleshoot iOS devices that are not communicating with the console? (Choose two.)

A.    Confirm that the iOS devices have network connection.
B.    Confirm that the APNs certificate is still valid.
C.    Confirm that AWCM is running.
D.    Confirm that the VPP token is valid.
E.    Confirm that DEP is enabled.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which three are configured through a VMware Identity Manager Access Policy? (Choose three.)

A.    Authentication Methods
B.    Terms of Use
C.    Identity Providers
D.    Device Type
E.    Network Range

Answer: ACD

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NEW QUESTION 1
A software development team recently migrated to new application software on the on-premises environment. Penetration test findings show that multiple vulnerabilities exist. If a penetration tester does not have access to a live or test environment, a test might be better to create the same environment on the VM. Which of the following is MOST important for confirmation?

A.    Unsecure service and protocol configuration.
B.    Running SMB and SMTP service.
C.    Weak password complexity and user account.
D.    Misconfiguration.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
While prioritizing findings and recommendations for an executive summary, which of the following considerations would be MOST valuable to the client?

A.    Levels of difficulty to exploit identified vulnerabilities.
B.    Time taken to accomplish each step.
C.    Risk tolerance of the organization.
D.    Availability of patches and remediations.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
A penetration tester successfully exploits a DM2 server that appears to be listening on an outbound port. The penetration tester wishes to forward that traffic back to a device. Which of the following are the BEST tools to use few this purpose? (Choose two.)

A.    Tcpdump
B.    Nmap
C.    Wiresrtark
D.    SSH
E.    Netcat
F.    Cain and Abel

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 4
When performing compliance-based assessments, which of the following is the MOST important key consideration?

A.    Additional rate
B.    Company policy
C.    Impact tolerance
D.    Industry type

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
A security consultant found a SCADA device in one of the VLANs in scope. Which of the following actions would be the BEST to create a potentially destructive outcome against device?

A.    Launch an SNMP password brute force attack against the device.
B.    Launch a Nessus vulnerability scan against the device.
C.    Launch a DNS cache poisoning attack against the device.
D.    Launch an SMB exploit against the device.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
A company contracted a firm specializing in penetration testing to assess the security of a core business application. The company provided the firm with a copy of the Java bytecode. Which of the following steps must the firm take before it can run a static code analyzer?

A.    Run the application through a dynamic code analyzer.
B.    Employ a fuzzing utility.
C.    Decompile the application.
D.    Check memory allocations.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
After performing a security assessment for a firm, the client was found to have been billed for the time the client’s test environment was unavailable. The client claims to have been billed unfairly. Which of the following documents would MOST likely be able to provide guidance in such a situation?

A.    SOW
B.    NDA
C.    EULA
D.    BRA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
An attacker uses SET to make a copy of a company’s cloud-hosted web mail portal and sends an email to obtain the CEO’s login credentials. Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?

A.    Elicitation attack
B.    Impersonation attack
C.    Spear phishing attack
D.    Drive-by download attack

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
A penetration tester is performing a remote scan to determine if the server farm is compliant with the company’s software baseline. Which of the following should the penetration tester perform to verify compliance with the baseline?

A.    Discovery scan
B.    Stealth scan
C.    Full scan
D.    Credentialed scan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following CPU register does the penetration tester need to overwrite in order to exploit a simple butter overflow?

A.    Stack pointer register
B.    Index pointer register
C.    Stack base pointer
D.    Destination index register

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
A penetration tester locates a few unquoted service paths during an engagement. Which of the following can the tester attempt to do with these?

A.    Attempt to crack the service account passwords.
B.    Attempt DLL hijacking attacks.
C.    Attempt to locate weak file and folder permissions.
D.    Attempt privilege escalation attacks.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
A tester has determined that null sessions are enabled on a domain controller. Which of the following attacks can be performed to leverage this vulnerability?

A.    RID cycling to enumerate users and groups.
B.    Pass the hash to relay credentials.
C.    Password brute forcing to log into the host.
D.    Session hijacking to impersonate a system account.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment for a financial services company. During the project kickoff meeting, the organization states the following business priorities:
“Overall, we want a robust solution which ensures that users can access their resources at any time, even if our primary datacenter experiences an outage. Our employees will need to access their resources from both inside and outside our corporate network, but we need to ensure that we enable this in a secure manner and protect our sensitive data.”
Which four design decisions align with the organization’s stated business drivers? (Choose four.)

A.    Redundancy should be implemented for all infrastructure components.
B.    Server OS Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines should be used to increase user density per machine.
C.    Optimal Gateway Routing should be configured on StoreFront.
D.    NetScaler will be required in the environment.
E.    A multi-Site architecture and disaster recovery plan will be required.
F.    Single image management should be included in the design.
G.    SmartAccess or SmartControl features should be considered for this environment.

Answer: BCDG

NEW QUESTION 2
Scenario:
While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices which have Receiver Desktop Lock installed. Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without incurring extra costs and maintenance. During the initial testing of the Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature, the architect observed that the Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature does NOT work on some of the machines. Which two reasons could be causing this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    Citrix Receiver was locally installed with administrator-level privileges.
B.    The Group Policy Object for Receiver Auto-Update feature is incorrectly configured in Active Directory.
C.    Citrix Receiver Auto-Update is disabled on machines where Receiver Desktop Lock is installed.
D.    The Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature needs to be configured before Receiver Desktop Lock is configured.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 3
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements:
— Product Managers: Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications.
— Field Sales Engineers: They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database.
— Web Developers: Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Product Managers?

A.    Hosted VDI
B.    Remote PC
C.    VM Hosted Applications
D.    Published Apps
E.    Published Desktops

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenDesktop environment for a client who does NOT currently have a Citrix environment. The project scope has NOT yet been determined, and the architect is about to start the Assess phase of the project. In which order should the architect complete the four tasks of a typical assessment when following the Citrix methodology?

A.    Define the organization, Define the user groups, Define the applications, Define the project team.
B.    Define the user groups, Define the applications, Define the organization, Define the project team.
C.    Define the project team, Define the organization, Define the user groups, Define the applications.
D.    Define the organization, Define the project team, Define the user groups, Define the applications.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing hardware requirements for a small production XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Requirements:
— Access to the environment hosted in a single datacenter.
— Ability to perform maintenance on the environment without requiring an outage.
Which hardware requirement does the architect need to include for hypervisor hosts in order to meet the customer’s needs?

A.    Multiple individual hypervisor hosts in the same datacenter.
B.    Separate hypervisor cluster/pool in an alternate datacenter.
C.    Separate hypervisor clusters/pools in the same datacenter.
D.    N+1 hypervisor hosts in a single cluster/pool.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a XenDesktop environment. The Engineer group uses graphical applications which require the use of AMD hardware shared virtualized GPU. Which two hypervisors can the architect select? (Choose two.)

A.    XenServer 6.5
B.    VMware vSphere 5.5
C.    XenServer 7.0
D.    VMware vSphere 6.0
E.    Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2012 R2

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 7
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Citrix Provisioning Services has been selected for image management. Which two RAID levels should the architect use for the storage hosting the Provisioning Service write cache? (Choose two.)

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 10
D.    RAID 6
E.    RAID 5

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/citrix-vdi-best-practices/design/design-userlayer5.html

NEW QUESTION 8
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a XenDesktop environment. The Engineer group uses graphical applications which require the use of Intel Iris Pro GPUs. Which two hypervisors can the architect select for this environment? (Choose two.)

A.    XenServer 6.5
B.    Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2012 R2
C.    XenServer 7.0
D.    VMware vSphere 5.5
E.    VMware vSphere 6.0

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 9
Scenario:
The IT team of a company needs to migrate to Microsoft Azure and has asked a Citrix Architect for a solution that offers protection from datacenter level failures. What should the architect recommend the IT team create in Microsoft Azure?

A.    Availability set with update domain
B.    Availability set with fault domain
C.    Resource group
D.    Availability zones

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability

NEW QUESTION 10
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to design a disaster recovery (DR) XenApp and XenDesktop Site that will be hosted in Citrix Cloud and Microsoft Azure. The DR Site is expected to support 2,000 Desktop OS Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. The architect should include ____ Cloud Connectors in the Azure resource location, each with a minimum of ____ vCPUs and ____ GB of RAM to avoid unnecessary over-provisioning of resources and follow Citrix leading practices. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. 3; 2; 4
B. 3; 4; 4
C. 3; 4; 8
D. 2; 4; 4
E. 1; 2; 4
F. 2; 4; 8

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 11
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is using LDAP as single-factor authentication. The architect is migrating the environment to Citrix Cloud and wants to retain the same authentication procedure for XenApp and XenDesktop service in Citrix Cloud. Which deployment strategy should the architect use for NetScaler and StoreFront to ensure that the solution reduces management overhead without incurring additional costs?

A.    Use Citrix Cloud NetScaler Gateway service and on-premises StoreFront.
B.    Set up a new NetScaler VPX instance and StoreFront on-premises.
C.    Use Citrix Cloud NetScaler Gateway service and Citrix Cloud Workspace.
D.    Set up NetScaler with bring-your-own license (BYOL) and StoreFront in a public cloud.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The Customer Service team processes credit card information in Web applications. A Payment Card Industry (PCI) audit determines that processes that can run on a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine are controlled through the use of whitelisting. Which method would be an appropriate fit for the environment, based on the requirements?

A.    Citrix Secure Browser
B.    NTFS Permissions
C.    Microsoft App-V
D.    Citrix Workspace Environment Management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
A Citrix Engineer needs to configure NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) in their network to retain network reporting data, events, audit logs, and task logs for 20 days. Which settings can the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

A.    System Prune Settings
B.    System Backup Settings
C.    Instance Backup Settings
D.    Syslog Prune Settings

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
What can a Citrix Engineer do to decrease browser load times by increasing the number of parallel connections to the resource?

A.    Configure Domain Sharding.
B.    Add more web servers.
C.    Block JavaScript on client browsers.
D.    Do NOT allow HTML websites.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two threats can be prevented by using IP Reputation? (Choose two.)

A.    Trojan horses
B.    Phishing Proxies
C.    Worm
D.    Compromised IPv6 web-server
E.    Compromised IPv4 web-server

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 4
Which aspect of NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) can be used to monitor end-to-end ICA traffic flowing through a NetScaler ADC?

A.    Gateway Insight
B.    HDX Insight
C.    Security Insight
D.    Web Insight

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
A Citrix Engineer needs generate and present a NetScaler PCI-DSS report to management. The report should include a PCI-DSS summary of the required security measures for PCI-DSS compliance. Where can the engineer generate the report from?

A.    Documentation > Nitro API
B.    Reporting > System
C.    Dashboard > System Overview
D.    Configuration > System > Reports

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer has configured an IP Reputation policy and Profile in Application Firewall. However, the engineer is NOT able to see any hits on the policy during testing. Which logs can the engineer check to ensure that IP Reputation is configured correctly?

A.    websocketd.log
B.    snmpd.log
C.    iprep.log
D.    httpaccess.log

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which security option falls under the Negative Security Model for Citrix Application Firewall?

A.    Start URL
B.    HTML Cross-Site Scripting
C.    Content-type
D.    Signature

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer has migrated an application to NetScaler to secure it from application layer attacks. The engineer receives a complaint that the application is timing out while users are actively accessing the page. Those users are forced to reestablish the connection. What can be the cause of this issue?

A.    The maximum session lifetime is NOT configured.
B.    The session time out is configured to a low value.
C.    The application is configured with a low session timeout.
D.    The maximum session lifetime is less than the session timeout.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two response headers are added by Application Firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    Transfer-Encoding
B.    Accept-Language
C.    Accept-Encoding
D.    Set-Cookie
E.    Range

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 10
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer uses one StyleBook on a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to create multiple load-balanced virtual server configurations for NetScaler instances. The configuration is saved in a config pack. In which two locations is the StyleBookconfig pack saved? (Choose two.)

A.    NetScaler Instance
B.    NetScaler SDX
C.    Syslog Server
D.    Local network
E.    NMAS

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which two actions can a Citrix Engineer use to provide Denial of Service (DoS) protection with the AppQoE feature? (Choose two.)

A.    Simple Response
B.    HIC Response
C.    Denial Response
D.    Complex Response

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 12
Which method is used by NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to gather licensing information from NetScaler?

A.    CFLOW
B.    APPFLOW
C.    NITRO
D.    IPFLOW

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
Which three protocols in a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) can be used to back up the current state of the managed NetScaler instances? (Choose three.)

A.    Telnet
B.    Secure Shell (SSH)
C.    NITRO calls
D.    HTTP
E.    Secure Copy (SCP)

Answer: BCE

NEW QUESTION 14
When the NetScaler marks a client connection as “non-trackable”, the default behavior of the NetScaler without making any change to the HTTP Profile is to ____. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    proxy the connection to the target
B.    proxy the connection to the client
C.    track the connection
D.    drop the connection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
What can a Citrix Engineer use in NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to troubleshoot an issue in which users report long response times when accessing a virtual desktop?

A.    Web Insight
B.    WAN Insight
C.    HDX Insight
D.    Gateway Insight

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
……

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NEW QUESTION 255
In which three ways does QoS provide better network service VoIP quality? (Choose three.)

A.    minimizes priority queuing
B.    manages network congestion
C.    improves loss characteristics
D.    supports dedicated bandwidth
E.    decreases traffic priorities
F.    increases packet size

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 256
An engineer is configuring Cisco Jabber for iOS. The device name must start with which option?

A.    CSF
B.    TCT
C.    iOS
D.    BOT

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 257
Which command adds a second line to an ephone-dn?

A.    ephone 1 lines 2
B.    ephone-dn 1 lines 2
C.    ephone-dn 1 dual-line
D.    ephone-dn 1 secondary line add

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 258
Which two password options are recommended when setting up a voicemail box that multiple users will access? (Choose two.)

A.    User Cannot Change
B.    No Password
C.    Does Not Expire
D.    User Must Change at Next Login
E.    Locked By Administrator

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 259
What is the unique identifier that is used to register an IP phone endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    MAC address
B.    model
C.    IP address
D.    serial number

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 260
Where can you download the RTMT application in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    Cisco Unified CM Administration
B.    Cisco Unified CM OS Administration
C.    Cisco Unified CM Plugin Manager
D.    Cisco Unified CM Extensions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 261
What is the limit of Cisco Unified Communications Manager for IP phones located in one standard cluster?

A.    30000
B.    35000
C.    40000
D.    45000

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 262
An engineer must import many users at the same time into Cisco Unity Connection. Which method must be used?

A.    manual creation
B.    CAPF profiles
C.    COBRAS
D.    bulk administration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 263
A network engineer must perform a manual backup of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where can this backup be done?

A.    Administration Resources
B.    Serviceability
C.    OS Administration
D.    Disaster Recovery System

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 264
A customer has requested that all employees have “Standard CTI Enabled” and “Standard CCM End User” roles. How would these be assigned prior to being applied to their accounts?

A.    Default Device Profile
B.    Credential Policy
C.    User Profile
D.    Access Control Group

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 265
An administrator is setting up a remote site in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that has a T1 WAN connection to the main site. Which option is the best VoIP codec for this task?

A.    G.711
B.    G.729
C.    G.712
D.    G.723

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 266
An engineer is ensuring that each SIP-based element within a network has a component to route call activities to. Which virtual Cisco UCS server component is effective in reducing the number of call routing combinations while also simplifying SIP network design and troubleshooting?

A.    PBX
B.    Cisco Unified SIP Proxy
C.    VG Gateway
D.    SRST

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 267
An engineer is creating a new phone using the Call Manager. Which option is presented first when you click the Add New button?

A.    Phone Type
B.    BAT Phone Template
C.    MAC Address
D.    Common Phone Profile

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268
You want to configure caller ID to display a user name instead of a dn for internal callers. Which of the following line appearance fields should you modify in UCM? (Choose the best answer.)

A.    Display
B.    External Phone Number Mask
C.    Line Text Label
D.    Visual Message Waiting Indicator Policy

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 269
You click Administrator’s Login Account in the CME GUI’s Configure System Parameters menu. Which of the following are you most likely configuring? (Choose the best answer.)

A.    a customer administrator
B.    an LDAP administrator
C.    a phone administrator
D.    a system administrator

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 270
Which of the following statements best describes DiffServ? (Choose the best answer.)

A.    It prioritizes packets by traffic class.
B.    It is not a QoS model that is recommended by Cisco for voice traffic.
C.    It requires applications to reserve their end-to-end bandwidth requirements.
D.    It is a traffic policing mechanism for when traffic exceeds minimum bandwidth limits.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 271
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NEW QUESTION 355
A video engineer wants to see the event logs of a Cisco VCS appliance. Under which menu item in the VCS web interface are the event logs located?

A.    Maintenance
B.    Configuration
C.    System
D.    Status

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 356
An engineer wants to know if there is a way to determine remotely what is the optical zoom of the camera directly connected to a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two methods will retrieve this information? (Choose two.)

A.    From the CLI, run xconfig.
B.    From the web GUI, choose Configuration > Camera > Status.
C.    From the CLI, run xstatus.
D.    From the web GUI, choose Configuration > System Status > Camera.
E.    From CLI, run xcommand camera.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 357
A video engineer with ID12345678 wants to provide Cisco Jabber for remote users without VPN connectivity. Which Cisco product must be implemented to achieve this goal?

A.    Cisco Expressway
B.    Cisco VCS
C.    Cisco Unified CM
D.    Cisco TMS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 358
An engineer must create a solution for 15 analog cameras. Which module supports this requirement?

A.    Cisco Analog Video Gateway Module
B.    Cisco ISR Module
C.    Cisco Video Management Module
D.    Cisco Storage System Module

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 359
Which endpoint use for multiparty with presentation capability and without centralized bridge?

A.    Jabber
B.    SX20
C.    7800
D.    DX650

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 360
An engineer is configuring Cisco TCS to record video conferences. The customer’s requirement is to configure 30 recording aliases and to enable automatic creation of future aliases. Which two configurations are required for this solution? (Choose two.)

A.    SIP registration between Cisco TCS and Cisco VCS
B.    configuring recording alias settings to copy on Cisco TCS
C.    custom system call configuration on Cisco TCS
D.    SIP registration between Cisco TCS and Cisco TelePresence MCU
E.    H.323 registration between Cisco TCS and Cisco VCS

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 361
Which CLI command must the engineer run on the SX20 to verify its registration status?

A.    xCommand
B.    xStatus
C.    xConfiguration
D.    xEvent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 362
Which two UDP services are available on an MCU? (Choose two.)

A.    FTP
B.    HTTP
C.    SNMP
D.    encrypted SIP
E.    H.323 gatekeeper

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 363
Which two actions does the pwrec command accomplish in a Cisco VCS appliance? (Choose two.)

A.    changes SSH password
B.    changes admin password
C.    changes any user account password
D.    changes root password
E.    changes Telnet password

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 364
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints are considered immersive endpoints? (Choose two.)

A.    C20
B.    EX90
C.    SX10
D.    TX9000
E.    IX5000

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 365
Which two features are present in the Cisco TelePresence TX9000 model? (Choose two.)

A.    1080p 60fps content-sharing stream
B.    integrated CTMS
C.    integrated document camera
D.    six-participant seating
E.    free-standing light reflector

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 366
An end user reports that when making B2B calls, the calls are connecting, however, no audio or video is being received by either party. Local calls work fine. Which two areas must be investigated? (Choose two.)

A.    VCS traversal zone
B.    endpoint traversal mode
C.    far end camera control
D.    firewall configurations
E.    DNS configuration

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 367
Which component of the Cisco Digital Media Suite is responsible for transcoding and transrating?

A.    Cisco DMD
B.    Cisco TMS
C.    Cisco MXE
D.    Cisco DMM

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 368
A conference has been scheduled two hours in advance. When does Cisco TelePresence Management Suite run diagnostics for system tickets that can affect the conference setup?

A.    15 minutes prior to the scheduled start time
B.    1 minute prior to the scheduled start time
C.    10 minutes prior to the scheduled start time
D.    5 minutes prior to the scheduled start time

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 369
Which of the following is accurate regarding facial and shoulder lighting measurements in a TelePresence environment? (Choose the best answer.)

A.    Facial lighting should be from 200 to 400 lux by using indirect lighting and with the endpoint off.
B.    Room lighting should be from 200 to 400 lux by using direct lighting and with the endpoint on.
C.    Facial lighting should be from 200 to 400 lux by using direct lighting and with the endpoint on.
D.    Shoulder lighting should be from 200 to 400 lux by using indirect lighting and with the endpoint off.
E.    Shoulder lighting should be from 200 to 400 lux by using direct lighting and with the endpoint on.
F.    Room lighting should be from 200 to 400 lux by using indirect lighting and with the endpoint off.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 370
Which of the following statements is correct regarding wallpapers on a Cisco TelePresence SX20 Quick Set? (Choose the best answer.)

A.    Only predefined wallpapers can be selected.
B.    Wallpapers can be modified by selecting the Maintenance > Personalization menu option on the web interface.
C.    Custom wallpapers must be 4 MB or smaller.
D.    Predefined wallpapers can be deleted.
E.    Custom wallpapers must use the .png file format.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 371
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NEW QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system. You implement federation between adatum.com and Azure Slack. You need to ensure that a user named admin01@adatum.com can manage all aspects of Azure Stack from administrator portal. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    New-CloudAdminUser
B.    Set-ServiceAdminOwner
C.    Set-AzsUserSubscription
D.    Set-CloudAdminPassword

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-integrate-identity

NEW QUESTION 2
You implement an Azure Stack integrated system. You need to identify the lowest amount of file share usage that will trigger a file capacity alert. Which amount should you identify?

A.    70%
B.    80%
C.    90%
D.    95%

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system. The system contains several tenants that use infrastructure as a service (IaaS) virtual machines. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that if a datacenter fails, you can start the virtual machines as quickly as possible. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft Azure Backup
B.    Microsoft Azure Site Recovery
C.    blob snapshots
D.    file-snapshot backups

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
You manage an Azure Stack integrated system. You plan to query the usage data of Azure Stack. Which three parameters can you use in the query? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    usageEndtinme
B.    meterId
C.    reporttedStarttime
D.    usageStartime
E.    aggregationGranularity
F.    reportedEndtime

Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 5
You successfully implement an App Service resource provider on an Azure Stack integrated system. You need to provide tenants with the ability to provision WordPress websites from the Marketplace. Which additional Azure Stack service should you deploy?

A.    a MySQL resource provider
B.    Cloud Foundry
C.    a Key Vault resource provider
D.    blockchain

Answer: A
Explanation:
WordPress requires MySQL for its database store.

NEW QUESTION 6
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that has a file server running on a virtual machine used by the App Service resource provider. You need to increase the amount of memory on the file server. Which command should you run?

A.    az vm resize
B.    az apservice plan update
C.    az vm update
D.    az apservice plan create

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that runs in a connected environment. You need to recommend an interval for installing Microsoft software update packages to Azure Stack. The solution must ensure that you can receive Microsoft support.
Solution: You recommend that Microsoft software updates be installed monthly.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
For your Azure Stack deployment to remain in support, it must run the most recently released update version or run either of the two preceding update versions. Microsoft will release update packages for Azure Stack integrated systems on a regular cadence that will typically fall on the fourth Tuesday of every month. Thus to remain in support you must be running one of the last three update versions and, as an update version is released every month, you need to install updates at least every three months.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-servicing-policy
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-updates

NEW QUESTION 8
You plan to create a Linux virtual machine on an Azure Stack integrated system. You download an Ubuntu Server image. Which authentication method can use to access the Linux virtual machine by using SSH?

A.    the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
B.    a Kerberos token
C.    a service principal
D.    a password

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you create you Linux VM via the portal or the CLI, you have two authentication choices. If you choose a password for SSH, Azure configures the VM to allow logins via passwords. If you chose to use an SSH public key, Azure configures the VM to only allow logins via SSH keys and disables password logins. To secure your Linux VM by only allowing SSH key logins, use the SSH public key option during the VM creation in the portal or CLI.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/linux/overview

NEW QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Stack integrated system. What are three source control providers that you can use for App Services? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Mercurial
B.    DropBox
C.    software version control (SVC)
D.    BitBucket
E.    OneDrive

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
In addition to local Git, the following Source Control Providers are supported:
– GitHub
– BitBucket
– OneDrive
– DropBox
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-app-service-configure-deployment-sources

NEW QUESTION 10
You have an Azure Stack integrated system. You discover that a hardware failure occurred on a node named Node1. You need to power off Node1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Stop-HpcAzureNode
B.    Disable-AzsScaleUnitNode
C.    Shutdown-HpcNode
D.    Stop-AzsScaleUnitNode

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-node-actions

NEW QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your company has a main office in New York and a branch office in Toronto. Each office has a dedicated connection to the Internet. Each office has a firewall that uses inbound and outbound rules. The company has an on-premises network that contains several datacenters. The datacenters contain multiple hypervisor deployments, including Window Server 2016 Hyper-V. The network uses Microsoft System Center for monitoring and Windows Azure Pack for self-service. The company has a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains several workloads. You use Azure Resource Manager templates and other automated processes to create and manage the resources in Azure. You have an Azure Stack integrated system in the New York office. The company has a deployment team in the Toronto office and a development team in the New York office. The system has an offer named Offer1. Several tenants have subscriptions based on Offer1. You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is used for testing. The hardware on Server1 can support the deployment of the Azure Stack Development Kit. You have a Generation 1 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 is deployed to a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 has a fixed size disk named VM1.vhdx that is 200 GB. You need to provide a new user with the ability to generate support session tokens when troubleshooting Azure Stack issues with Microsoft Support. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 12
DRAG and DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system named Prod to a production environment. You also deploy an Azure Stack integrated system named Dev to a development environment. The developers who access Dev change frequently. The Azure Stack integrated systems and the contoso.com forest are federated. The on-premises network contains a Hyper-V host that hosts a Red Hat Enterprise Linux virtual machine named Linux1. Linux1 has the following characteristics:
– A 2 TB disk
– Generation 1
– 10 virtual cores
– 128 GB of RAM
– A disk named LinuxVhd.vhdx
You plan to deploy infrastructure as a service (IaaS) to Dev for developer projects. The Marketplace on Dev is configured and ready to publish items. Dev contains one plan named Dev_Plan1 and one offer named Dev_Offer1. Prod contains two plans and two offers. One of the offers is named Offer1. All the IaaS and platform as a service (PaaS) tenant data must be backed up to an external location. The solution must ensure that the data can be restored if the datacenter that hosts Prod becomes unavailable. You need to prepare a custom image based on Linux1 that will be deployed to Prod. The solution must prevent any changes to the current disk of Linux1. Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
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NEW QUESTION 180
What is the difference between the AES and RSA algorithms?

A.    Both are symmetric algorithms, but AES uses 256-bit keys.
B.    AES is asymmetric, which is used to create a public/private key pair.
RSA is symmetric, which is used to encrypt data.
C.    Both are asymmetric algorithms, but RSA uses 1024-bit keys.
D.    RSA is asymmetric, which is used to create a public/private key pair.
AES is symmetric, which is used to encrypt data.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 181
In 2007, this wireless security algorithm was rendered useless by capturing packets and discovering the passkey in a matter of seconds. This security flaw led to a network invasion of TJ Maxx and data theft through a technique known as wardriving. Which Algorithm is this referring to?

A.    Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B.    Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
C.    Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
D.    Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 182
You are an Ethical Hacker who is auditing the ABC company. When you verify the NOC one of the machines has 2 connections, one wired and the other wireless. When you verify the configuration of this Windows system you find two static routes:
route add 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 10.0.0.1
route add 0.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 199.168.0.1
What is the main purpose of those static routes?

A.    Both static routes indicate that the traffic is external with different gateway.
B.    The first static route indicates that the internal traffic will use an external gateway and the second static route indicates that the traffic will be rerouted.
C.    Both static routes indicate that the traffic is internal with different gateway.
D.    The first static route indicates that the internal addresses are using the internal gateway and the second static route indicates that all the traffic that is not internal must go to an external gateway.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 183
An incident investigator asks to receive a copy of the event logs from all firewalls, proxy servers, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) on the network of an organization that has experienced a possible breach of security. When the investigator attempts to correlate the information in all of the logs, the sequence of many of the logged events do not match up. What is the most likely cause?

A.    The network devices are not all synchronized.
B.    Proper chain of custody was not observed while collecting the logs.
C.    The attacker altered or erased events from the logs.
D.    The security breach was a false positive.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 184
An attacker is using nmap to do a ping sweep and a port scanning in a subnet of 254 addresses. In which order should he perform these steps?

A.    The sequence does not matter. Both steps have to be performed against all hosts.
B.    First the port scan to identify interesting services and then the ping sweep to find hosts responding to icmp echo requests.
C.    First the ping sweep to identify live hosts and then the port scan on the live hosts. This way he saves time.
D.    The port scan alone is adequate. This way he saves time.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 185
Which tier in the N-tier application architecture is responsible for moving and processing data between the tiers?

A.    Application Layer
B.    Data tier
C.    Presentation tier
D.    Logic tier

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 186
An enterprise recently moved to a new office and the new neighborhood is a little risky. The CEO wants to monitor the physical perimeter and the entrance doors 24 hours. What is the best option to do this job?

A.    Use fences in the entrance doors.
B.    Install a CCTV with cameras pointing to the entrance doors and the street.
C.    Use an IDS in the entrance doors and install some of them near the corners.
D.    Use lights in all the entrance doors and along the company’s perimeter.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 187
Bob learned that his username and password for a popular game has been compromised. He contacts the company and resets all the information. The company suggests he use two-factor authentication; which option below offers that?

A.    A fingerprint scanner and his username and password.
B.    His username and a stronger password.
C.    A new username and password.
D.    Disable his username and use just a fingerprint scanner.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 188
A bank stores and processes sensitive privacy information related to home loans. However, auditing has never been enabled on the system. What is the first step that the bank should take before enabling the audit feature?

A.    Perform a vulnerability scan of the system.
B.    Determine the impact of enabling the audit feature.
C.    Perform a cost/benefit analysis of the audit feature.
D.    Allocate funds for staffing of audit log review.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 189
As an Ethical Hacker you are capturing traffic from your customer network with Wireshark and you need to find and verify just SMTP traffic. What command in Wireshark will help you to find this kind of traffic?

A.    request smtp 25
B.    tcp.port eq 25
C.    smtp port
D.    tcp.contains port 25

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 190
Which of the following programs is usually targeted at Microsoft Office products?

A.    Polymorphic virus
B.    Multipart virus
C.    Macro virus
D.    Stealth virus

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 191
A new wireless client is configured to join an 802.11 network. This client uses the same hardware and software as many of the other clients on the network. The client can see the network, but cannot connect. A wireless packet sniffer shows that the Wireless Access Point (WAP) is not responding to the association requests being sent by the wireless client. What is a possible source of this problem?

A.    The WAP does not recognize the client’s MAC address.
B.    The client cannot see the SSID of the wireless network.
C.    Client is configured for the wrong channel.
D.    The wireless client is not configured to use DHCP.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 192
What is correct about digital signatures?

A.    A digital signature cannot be moved from one signed document to another because it is the hash of the original document encrypted with the private key of the signing party.
B.    Digital signatures may be used in different documents of the same type.
C.    A digital signature cannot be moved from one signed document to another because it is a plain hash of the document content.
D.    Digital signatures are issued once for each user and can be used everywhere until they expire.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 193
What does a firewall check to prevent particular ports and applications from getting packets into an organization?

A.    Transport layer port numbers and application layer headers.
B.    Presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers.
C.    Network layer headers and the session layer port numbers.
D.    Application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 194
John the Ripper is a technical assessment tool used to test the weakness of which of the following?

A.    Usernames
B.    File permissions
C.    Firewall rulesets
D.    Passwords

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 195
A tester has been hired to do a web application security test. The tester notices that the site is dynamic and must make use of a back end database. In order for the tester to see if SQL injection is possible, what is the first character that the tester should use to attempt breaking a valid SQL request?

A.    Semicolon
B.    Single quote
C.    Exclamation mark
D.    Double quote

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 196
You have successfully compromised a machine on the network and found a server that is alive on the same network. You tried to ping it but you didn’t get any response back. What is happening?

A.    ICMP could be disabled on the target server.
B.    The ARP is disabled on the target server.
C.    TCP/IP doesn’t support ICMP.
D.    You need to run the ping command with root privileges.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 197
A large mobile telephony and data network operator has a data that houses network elements. These are essentially large computers running on Linux. The perimeter of the data center is secured with firewalls and IPS systems. What is the best security policy concerning this setup?

A.    Network elements must be hardened with user ids and strong passwords.
Regular security tests and audits should be performed.
B.    As long as the physical access to the network elements is restricted, there is no need for additional measures.
C.    There is no need for specific security measures on the network elements as long as firewalls and IPS systems exist.
D.    The operator knows that attacks and down time are inevitable and should have a backup site.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 198
Which of the following incident handling process phases is responsible for defining rules, collaborating human workforce, creating a back-up plan, and testing the plans for an organization?

A.    Preparation phase
B.    Containment phase
C.    Identification phase
D.    Recovery phase

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 199
A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?

A.    Firewall-management policy
B.    Acceptable-use policy
C.    Remote-access policy
D.    Permissive policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 200
Which of the following areas is considered a strength of symmetric key cryptography when compared with asymmetric algorithms?

A.    Scalability
B.    Speed
C.    Key distribution
D.    Security

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 201
……

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Case Study 1 — Humongous Insurance
……

QUESTION 1
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A.    Partner information
B.    Overview
C.    Payment methods
D.    Invoices

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-download-azure-invoice-daily-usage-date

QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the environment to meet the authentication requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy.
B.    A Recovery Services vault and a backup policy.
C.    An Azure Key Vault and an access policy.
D.    An Azure Storage account and an access policy.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
D: Seamless SSO works with any method of cloud authentication – Password Hash Synchronization or Pass-through Authentication, and can be enabled via Azure AD Connect.
B: You can gradually roll out Seamless SSO to your users. You start by adding the following Azure AD URL to all or selected users’ Intranet zone settings by using Group Policy in Active Directory: https://autologon.microsoftazuread-sso.com.
Incorrect:
NOT A: Seamless SSO needs the user’s device to be domain-joined, but doesn’t need for the device to be Azure AD Joined.
NOT C: Azure AD connect does not port 8080. It uses port 443.
NOT E: Seamless SSO is not applicable to Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS).
Scenario: Users in the Miami office must use Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-on (Azure AD Seamless SSO) when accessing resources in Azure. Planned Azure AD Infrastructure include: The on-premises Active Directory domain will be synchronized to Azure AD.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/connect/active-directory-aadconnect-sso-quick-start

QUESTION 3
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A.    invoices
B.    partner information
C.    cost analysis
D.    external services

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure. Which domain name should you use?

A.    ad.humongousinsurance.com
B.    humongousinsurance.onmicrosoft.com
C.    humongousinsurance.local
D.    humongousinsurance.com

Answer: D

Case Study 2 — Contoso Ltd.
……

QUESTION 1
You need to move the blueprint files to Azure. What should you do?

A.    Generate a shared access signature (SAS). Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
B.    Use the Azure Import/Export service.
C.    Generate an access key. Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
D.    Use Azure Storage Explorer to copy the files.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure Storage Explorer is a free tool from Microsoft that allows you to work with Azure Storage data on Windows, macOS, and Linux. You can use it to upload and download data from Azure blob storage. Scenario: Planned Changes include: move the existing product blueprint files to Azure Blob storage. Technical Requirements include: Copy the blueprint files to Azure over the Internet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/team-data-science-process/move-data-to-azure-blob-using-azure-storage-explorer

QUESTION 2
You need to implement a backup solution for App1 after the application is moved. What should you create first?

A.    a recovery plan
B.    an Azure Backup Server
C.    a backup policy
D.    a Recovery Services vault

Answer: D
Explanation:
A Recovery Services vault is a logical container that stores the backup data for each protected resource, such as Azure VMs. When the backup job for a protected resource runs, it creates a recovery point inside the Recovery Services vault. Scenario: There are three application tiers, each with five virtual machines. Move all the virtual machines for App1 to Azure. Ensure that all the virtual machines for App1 are protected by backups.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/quick-backup-vm-portal

Other Mixed Questions
……

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines. You need to ensure that you receive an email message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or deallocated. What is the minimum number of rules and action groups that you require?

A.    three rules and three action groups
B.    one rule and one action group
C.    three rules and one action group
D.    one rule and three action groups

Answer: C
Explanation:
An action group is a collection of notification preferences defined by the user. Azure Monitor and Service Health alerts are configured to use a specific action group when the alert is triggered. Various alerts may use the same action group or different action groups depending on the user’s requirements.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/monitoring-and-diagnostics/monitoring-action-groups

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1.
Solution: From the Subscriptions blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You plan to use the Azure Import/Export service to copy files to a storage account. Which two files should you create before you prepare the drives for the import job? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    an XML manifest file
B.    a driveset CSV file
C.    a dataset CSV file
D.    a PowerShell PS1 file
E.    a JSON configuration file

Answer: BC
Explanation:
B: Modify the driveset.csv file in the root folder where the tool resides.
C: Modify the dataset.csv file in the root folder where the tool resides. Depending on whether you want to import a file or folder or both, add entries in the dataset.csv file.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-data-to-files

QUESTION 14
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. You regularly create and delete virtual machines. You need to identify unused disks that can be deleted. What should you do?

A.    From Microsoft Azure Storage Explorer, view the Account Management properties.
B.    From the Azure portal, configure the Advisor recommendations.
C.    From Cloudyn, open the Optimizer tab and create a report.
D.    From Cloudyn, create a Cost Management report.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. Each subscription is associated to a different Azure AD tenant. Subscription1 contains a virtual network named VNet1.VNet1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1 and has an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16. Subscription2 contains a virtual network named VNet2. VNet2 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM2 and has an IP address space of 10.10.0.0/24. You need to connect VNet1 to VNet2. What should you do first?

A.    Move VNet1 to Subscription2.
B.    Modify the IP address space of VNet2.
C.    Provision virtual network gateways.
D.    Move VM1 to Subscription2.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The virtual networks can be in the same or different regions, and from the same or different subscriptions. When connecting VNets from different subscriptions, the subscriptions do not need to be associated with the same Active Directory tenant. Configuring a VNet-to-VNet connection is a good way to easily connect VNets. Connecting a virtual network to another virtual network using the VNet-to-VNet connection type (VNet2VNet) is similar to creating a Site-to-Site IPsec connection to an on-premises location. Both connectivity types use a VPN gateway to provide a secure tunnel using IPsec/IKE, and both function the same way when communicating. The local network gateway for each VNet treats the other VNet as a local site. This lets you specify additional address space for the local network gateway in order to route traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-howto-vnet-vnet-resource-manager-portal

QUESTION 16
Your company has an Azure subscription named Subscription1. The company also has two on-premises servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a DNS server that has a primary DNS zone named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains 1,000 DNS records. You manage Server1 and Subscription1 from Server2. Server2 has the following tools installed:
– The DNS Manager console
– Azure PowerShell
– Azure CLI 2.0
You need to move the adatum.com zone to Subscription1. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you use?

A.    Azure PowerShell
B.    Azure CLI
C.    The Azure portal
D.    The DNS Manager console

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure DNS supports importing and exporting zone files by using the Azure command-line interface (CLI). Zone file import is not currently supported via Azure PowerShell or the Azure portal.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-import-export

QUESTION 17
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource groups. Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription. You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You configure a custom policy definition, and then you assign the policy to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Resource policy definition used by Azure Policy enables you to establish conventions for resources in your organization by describing when the policy is enforced and what effect to take. By defining conventions, you can control costs and more easily manage your resources.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-policy/policy-definition

QUESTION 18
Your company registers a domain name of contoso.com. You create an Azure DNS named contoso.com and then you add an A record to the zone for a host named www that has an IP address of 131.107.1.10. You discover that Internet hosts are unable to resolve www.contoso.com to the 131.107.1.10 IP address. You need to resolve the name resolution issue.
Solution: You modify the SOA record in the contoso.com zone.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Modify the NS record, not the SOA record.
https://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/definition/start-of-authority-record

QUESTION 19
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NEW QUESTION 1
What are two security types available for NFSv3 shares? (Choose two.)

A.    AUTH_SYS
B.    unified
C.    Kerberos vs
D.    mixed

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 2
A storage administrator is not receiving performance alerts on an OnCommand Unified Manager policy that was created for a NAS volume. Which additional task is required to solve this problem?

A.    You should assign a tiering policy.
B.    You should assign the performance threshold policy.
C.    You should clear the performance threshold policy.
D.    You should search for volume data.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You are configuring replication between two NetApp clusters. You want to configure disaster recovery and vaulting on the same destination volume. In this scenario, which SnapMirror relationship type and SnapMirror policy type should be used?

A.    a relationship type DP and a policy type vault
B.    a relationship type DP and a policy type mirror-vault
C.    a relationship type XDP and a policy type vault
D.    a relationship type XDP and a policy type mirror-vault

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Which privilege is assigned to the vsadmin-backup role?

A.    configuring SnapMirror relationships between clusters
B.    managing Snapshot copies
C.    managing volumes
D.    configuring LIFs for cluster peering

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
You have a 2-node NetApp cluster with CIFS volumes and SAN LUNs on both nodes. The FC hosts have MPIO correctly configured and see LUN paths through both NetApp nodes. During a node failover, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    FC hosts will experience an outage.
B.    FC hosts will not experience an outage.
C.    Some CIFS users may experience a brief outage.
D.    CIFS users will not experience any outage.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 6
What are two security types available for NFSv3 shares? (Choose two.)

A.    AUTH_SYS
B.    mixed
C.    unified
D.    Kerberos v5

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 7
When a storage QoS policy is configured, which two metrics are configured with a maximum limit? (Choose two.)

A.    concurrent connections
B.    IOPS
C.    MBps
D.    latency

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two LIF role types allow LIF migration among nodes? (Choose two.)

A.    cluster management
B.    node management
C.    intercluster
D.    data

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 9
Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM?

A.    FTP
B.    CIFS
C.    HTTP
D.    TFTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Where would you look to find the minimum and the maximum number of array LUNS supported by FlexArray?

A.    One Collect
B.    Hardware Universe
C.    Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT)
D.    Config Advisor

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
You want to enable jumbo frames for iSCSI traffic on your cluster. To satisfy this requirement, what would you modify on the cluster?

A.    iSCSI LIFs
B.    broadcast domains
C.    network ports
D.    igroups

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
Which two network neighbor discovery protocols are supported in ONTAP 9.3? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS
B.    LLDP
C.    CDP
D.    LDAP

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 13
The vsadmin account for SVM vs1 is unlocked and configured with a password. Which two statements are true about login methods for the vsadmin account? (Choose two.)

A.    You access OnCommand System Manager.
B.    You access SSH.
C.    You access OnCommand Unified Manager.
D.    You access ONTAP API.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 14
Which two statements about replicating FlexGroup volumes are true? (Choose two.)

A.    You can increase the capacity of a FlexGroup volume that is being replicated.
B.    The SnapMirror relationship type must be XDP.
C.    You cannot perform a resync on a FlexGroup SnapMirror relationship after it has been broken.
D.    The SnapMirror relationship type must be DP.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 15
Which two objects are supported in a FlexVol volume? (Choose two.)

A.    aggregate
B.    qtree
C.    RAID group
D.    LUN

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 16
You are using an AFF A700. In this scenario, which two default storage efficiency techniques will help save space? (Choose two.)

A.    postprocess compaction
B.    inline deduplication
C.    postprocess deduplication
D.    inline compression

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 17
ONTAP Select 9.3 supports which three configurations? (Choose three.)

A.    four node
B.    single node
C.    eight node
D.    three node
E.    two node

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 18
You want to asynchronously replicate an SVM’s volumes and configuration to another NetApp cluster. Which data protection technology accomplishes this task?

A.    MetroCluster
B.    SnapMirror
C.    SnapVault
D.    SVM disaster recovery

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 19
Which three objects are restorable from a FlexVol Snapshot copy? (Choose three.)

A.    FlexVol
B.    NFS export
C.    qtree
D.    LUN
E.    file

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 20
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NEW QUESTION 1
A customer has a stack of shelves with both DS4243 shelves and DS4246 shelves. The customer wants to replace the DS4243 shelves with new DS4246 shelves. What would you advise the customer in this scenario?

A.    Convert the ACP communication from out-of-band to In-band channel.
B.    Remove the ACP cabling from the stack before adding the new shelves.
C.    Remove the DS4243 shelves, but you must add the new DS4246 shelves to a new stack.
D.    Configure the shelf IDs of the new DS4246 shelves to match the existing DS4246 shelves.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You have just installed a new FAS2650 HA for your customer. You are now configuring the AutoSupport transport section. In this scenario, what Is the NetApp best practice for this task to allow AutoSupport (ASOD)?

A.    Use SMTP
B.    Use HTTPS
C.    Use HTTP
D.    Use SSH

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
You finished the Installation of a 2-node cluster and want to determine correctly. What are two ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    Use the OnCommand Performance Manager GUI.
B.    Use the cluster ha show and storage failover show commands on the CU.
C.    Use the system node autosupport check show command on the CU.
D.    Use the OnCommand System Manager GUI.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 4
A customer has a standard request for information regarding the installation, configuration, usage, and maintenance of this NetAPP equipment. What is the appropriate priority level to use when he open a case?

A.    P2
B.    P1
C.    P4
D.    P3

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
You have created an aggregate with one RAID group on your ONTAP 9 cluster. Two disks have already failed and have not finished reconstructing. What would protect you from a third disk failure while you are still reconstructing the two failed disks?

A.    RAID-0
B.    RAID-4
C.    RAID-TEC
D.    RAID-DP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
What are two ways to obtain customer licenses for a new ONTAP system? (Choose two.)

A.    Access the NetApp Support site.
B.    Open a support ticket.
C.    Access the Field Portal site.
D.    Access NetApp Knowledge Base.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
What is a valid failover policy for a SAN LIF?

A.    disabled
B.    broadcast-domain-wide
C.    system-define
D.    local-only

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1636021/html/GUID-D99400AB-789A-4F6A-8443-9F74165F2B88.html

NEW QUESTION 8
You are adding two new nodes into an existing switchless 2-node cluster. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    You first need to Install the cluster interconnect switches to the existing cluster.
B.    You must make sure that the existing nodes are healthy and that all cluster links are up.
C.    The existing cluster must use clustered Data ONTAP 8.1 or later software.
D.    You need to schedule downtime to add these two nodes.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-sag%2FGUID-B13FF812-785E-4E62-9914-30E7A8F51A4C.html

NEW QUESTION 9
You are asked to install a new ONTAP cluster at a customer site. In this scenario, which ONTAP versions would you normally install? (Choose two.)

A.    the latest RC1 with the included patch level
B.    the latest GA with the included patch level
C.    the release specified by the customer
D.    the latest release listed for the controller type

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 10
You are asked to install a 2-node FAS2554 cluster running ONTAP 9.1. The controller arrived with ONTAP 9.0 Installed. In this scenario, which two tools would be used to complete this upgrade for this Installation? (Choose two.)

A.    HTTP server
B.    SMTP server
C.    FTP server
D.    SNMP server

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 11
You are preparing to install a new cluster at a customer site. Which two concerns must you address with the customer in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Is there an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system?
B.    Is there enough rack space available?
C.    Are the power requirements fulfilled?
D.    Is there a fire extinguishing system?

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 12
You want to grow your current ONTAP cluster. You have a Cisco Nexus 5596UP that is currently using all of its on-board ports. Which statement is correct in this situation?

A.    Contact NetApp Support to order new switches.
B.    Add expansion modules to the Cisco switches.
C.    Pull the redundant cables from each node to obtain more free ports on the switch.
D.    Add new SFP modules to the empty on board ports on the Cisco switches.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
How are the FC-VI links cabled in MetroCluster for ONTAP?

A.    one cable to each of the two local FC switches
B.    controller A is cabled to FC switch A, controller B has both cabled to FC switch B
C.    directly to the corresponding local HA partner
D.    directly to the corresponding remote HA partner

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
You are upgrading your Data ONTAP cluster from clustered Data ONTAP 8.3 to clustered Data ONTAP 9.1. Which two actions must be performed for the SnapMirror relationships? (Choose two.)

A.    Break existing SnapMirror relationships.
B.    Delete the obsolete SnapMirror Snapshot copies which were created in Data ONTAP 8.3.
C.    After the upgrade, resynchronize, and resume SnapMirror relationships.
D.    Delete and re-create SnapMirror relationships.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 3
What are two capabilities enabled by Snapshot copies? (Choose two.)

A.    Change the volume language of a secondary Snapshot copy.
B.    Recover previous versions of a file that was deleted.
C.    Write to the Snapshot copy.
D.    Create a clone of a FlexVol volume.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 4
Your disaster recovery strategy requires a mirror, an archive, and a tape backup. Which software would you recommend for this scenario?

A.    OnCommand System Manager
B.    OnCommand Workflow Automation
C.    SnapProtect
D.    OnCommand Unified Manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
You are performing a routine health check for a customer and need to determine if the disk shelf firmware is up to date. From My AutoSupport, which report would you use?

A.    Transition Advisor
B.    Visualization
C.    Upgrade Advisor
D.    Event Viewer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
A volume has been filled completely by active data and Snapshot copies. What must you do to make the volume writable again?

A.    Delete files in the active file system.
B.    Delete any SnapMirror relationships.
C.    Delete enough Snapshot copies until space is available.
D.    Modify the Snapshot reserve.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two NetApp products reduce the backup time and create a consistent backup for a primary Oracle target? (Choose two.)

A.    SnapMirror for Open Systems
B.    Open Systems SnapVault
C.    SnapManager for Orade
D.    SnapProtect

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 8
A customer wants compression enabled on the SnapVault secondary volume. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A warning message is not displayed when you enable compression on a SnapVault secondary volume.
B.    Data transfers will be storage efficient after enabling compression on the SnapVault secondary volume.
C.    A warning message is displayed when you enable compression on a SnapVault secondary volume.
D.    Data transfers will not be storage efficient after enabling compression on the SnapVault secondary volume.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 9
The primary and secondary clusters are fully configured. You want to set up an inter-cluster SnapMirror relationship. Which two actions are prerequisite to accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)

A.    The SVMs must be peered.
B.    The primary and secondary clusters must be peered.
C.    The Snapshot schedule must be configured.
D.    NDMP must be enabled.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 10
You and other administrators are in the habit of creating FlexClone LUNs and then not deleting them when they are no longer needed. What should you do to help manage space utilization?

A.    Use the flexclone split command.
B.    Use the volume snapshot autodelete modify command.
C.    Configure FlexClone LUNs to automatically be marked for deletion.
D.    Configure FlexClone LUNs to automatically delete when they are one minute older than 30 days.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
You want to find an automated way to handle space utilization in volumes. You have limited space available in your aggregate. Which solution would solve this scenario?

A.    Enable aggregate compression.
B.    Enable volume autosize.
C.    Enable volume level QoS.
D.    Enable Snapshot autodelete.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
Which attribute does Data ONTAP use the identify Snapshot copies between primary and secondary FlexVol volumes in a SnapVault relationship?

A.    FlexVol name
B.    Snapshot prefix
C.    SnapMirror policy
D.    SnapMirror label

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
You want to provide your team with a SnapProtect report that shows how many backups succeeded, were delayed, and failed over the last 30 days. You also want detailed information about the jobs, agents, and clients. Which CommCell report provides the necessary information?

A.    Backup Job Summary
B.    Activity
C.    Health
D.    SLA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14
A customer wants to convert some SnapMirror relationships to SnapVault relationships. How would this be accomplished without creating a new baseline?

A.    Break and delete the relationship followed by SnapMirror resync.
B.    Break the relationship followed by SnapMirror delete.
C.    Break and delete the relationship followed by SnapMirror resync with relationship type XDP.
D.    Break the relationship followed by SnapMirror modify.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
In which two scenarios would a SnapMirror policy be applied? (Choose two.)

A.    a log file
B.    a storage virtual machine
C.    a data protection mirror relationship
D.    a SnapVault relationship

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 16
……

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Case Study 1
NEW QUESTION 1
You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours.
Solution: From Azure Network Watcher, you create a packet capture.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Case Study 2
NEW QUESTION 2
A web developer creates a web application that you plan to deploy as an Azure web app. Users must enter credentials to access the web application. You create a new web app named WebApp1 and deploy the web application to WebApp1. You need to disable anonymous access to WebApp1. What should you configure?

A.    Advanced Tools
B.    Authentication/Authorization
C.    Access control
D.    Deployment credentials

Answer: B

Case Study 4
NEW QUESTION 3
You discover that VM3 does NOT meet the technical requirements. You need to verify whether the issue relates to the NSGs. What should you use?

A.    Diagram in VNet1.
B.    The security recommendations in Azure Advisor.
C.    Diagnostic settings in Azure Monitor.
D.    Diagnose and solve problems in Traffic Manager Profiles.
E.    IP flow verify in Azure Network Watcher.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 4
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A.    An Azure Notification Hub
B.    An Azure Event Hub
C.    An Azure Logic App
D.    An Azure Services Bus

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to automate the configuration for the finance department users. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommended?

A.    Azure AP B2C
B.    Azure AD Identity Protection
C.    An Azure logic app and the Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) client
D.    Dynamic groups and conditional access policies

Answer: A

Case Study 5
NEW QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do?

A.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
B.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
D.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You create an Azure Migrate project named TestMig in a resource group named test-migration. You need to discover which on-premises virtual machines to assess for migration. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Case Study 6
NEW QUESTION 8
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that contains a subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 contains three Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a public IP address. The virtual machines host several applications that are accessible over port 443 to user on the Internet. Your on-premises network has a site-to-site VPN connection to VNet1. You discover that the virtual machines can be accessed by using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) from the Internet and from the on-premises network. You need to prevent RDP access to the virtual machines from the Internet, unless the RDP connection is established from the on-premises network. The solution must ensure that all the applications can still be accesses by the Internet users. What should you do?

A.    Modify the address space of the local network gateway.
B.    Remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines.
C.    Modify the address space of Subnet1.
D.    Create a deny rule in a network security group (NSG) that is linked to Subnet1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines. You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only. What should you configure?

A.    an inbound NAT rule
B.    a load public balancing rule
C.    a new public load balancer for VM3
D.    a new IP configuration

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that connects to your on-premises network by using a site-to-site VPN. VNet1 contains one subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 is associated to a network security group (NSG) named NSG1. Subnetl1 contains a basic internal load balancer named ILB1. ILB1 has three Azure virtual machines in the backend pod. You need to collect data about the IP addresses that connects to ILB1. You must be able to run interactive queries from the Azure portal against the collected data. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Case Study 8
NEW QUESTION 11
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. From the Azure Active Directory blade, you assign the Conditional Access Administrator role to a user. You need to ensure that Admin1 has just-in-time access as a conditional access administrator. What should you do next?

A.    Enable Azure AD Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
B.    Set Admin1 as Eligible for the Privileged Role Administrator role.
C.    Admin1 as Eligible for the Conditional Access Administrator role.
D.    Enable Azure AD Identity Protection.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com. You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users. What should you do?

A.    Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection.
B.    Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C.    Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D.    Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You have an existing Azure AD conditional access policy named Policy1. Policy1 enforces the use of Azure AD-joined devices when members of the Global Administrators group authenticate to Azure AD from untrusted locations. You need to ensure that members of the Global Administrators group will also be forced to use multi-factor authentication when authenticating from untrusted locations. What should you do?

A.    From the multi-factor authentication page, modify the service settings.
B.    From the multi-factor authentication page, modify the user settings.
C.    From the Azure portal, modify grant control of Policy1.
D.    From the Azure portal, modify session control of Policy1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
……

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