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NEW QUESTION 930
Which two components does the IS-IS IPv4 Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute feature fail to protect? (Choose two.)

A.    ECMP
B.    port channel
C.    downstream path
D.    subinterface
E.    MPLS TE tunnels

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 931
Which three common use cases for customers using multiple cloud providers are true? (Choose three.)

A.    bandwidth
B.    high availability
C.    feature disparity
D.    security
E.    analytics
F.    regional cloud provider access

Answer: BCF

NEW QUESTION 932
Which statement describes the purpose of the EOBC links on an nV Edge solution using Cisco ASR 9000 Series?

A.    synchronize control plane state information
B.    provide backup transport of data plane traffic
C.    prevent split-brain behavior in case of other link loss
D.    provide primary transport of data plane traffic

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 933
An engineer finds out that two LSRs do not reach an agreement on LDP neighborship session. Which mechanism prevents these two LSRs from engaging in an unthrottled sequence of session setup failures?

A.    discovery transport-address
B.    instance-tlv
C.    LDP backoff
D.    LCC

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 934
BGP is used for PE-CE routing protocol and all CEs in the same VPN use the same AS number. Which command can be applied on PE router that eliminates the need to configure the AS override feature for the service provider in order to provide full connectivity amongst all CEs in the same VPN?

A.    neighbor allowas-in
B.    neighbor SoO
C.    maximum-paths ibgp maximum-number
D.    neighbor internal-vpn-client

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 935
Which two statements about MPLS LDP Session Protection are true? (Choose two.)

A.    LDP session protection can be applied onto to a directly connected neighbor.
B.    LDP label bindings must be re-advertised when the directly connected link comes back.
C.    LDP session stays up as long as the LDP peer is reachable after a network failure.
D.    MPLS LDP session protection uses LDP targeted hellos.
E.    MPLS LDP session protection and LDP IGP synchronization are mutually exclusive features.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 936
OSPF is enabled on PE-to-CE links. To ensure that OSPF routes from CE routers are seen as OSPF interarea routes access the backbone, which type of configuration should be deployed on the PE routers?

A.    the same domain ID value on both PE routers
B.    down bit set for all LSA interarea
C.    the same Site of Origin value on both PE routers
D.    a sham link between PE routers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 937
During a failure, which BGP features forces subsecond convergence to an alternate path?

A.    Prefix-Independent Convergence.
B.    Aggressive BGP keepalive and holdtime timers.
C.    Bidirectional Forwarding Detection.
D.    BGP scanner timer reduced to minimal.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 938
An engineer has a requirement to implement OSPFv3 in such a way that modifying IP subnets within the domain does not affect the integrity of the SPF tree. Which specific LSA enables the engineer to avoid a forced SPF recalculation?

A.    interarea prefix LSA
B.    group membership LSA
C.    intra-area prefix LSA
D.    link LSA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 939
In which scenario can you host the most instances on a server?

A.    using microservices application
B.    using containers in virtual machines
C.    using only containers
D.    using only virtual machines
E.    using virtual machines in containers

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 940
Which two attributes about BFD are true? (Choose two.)

A.    implemented only on route processors
B.    increases the control plane CPU load
C.    implemented on line cards
D.    detects forwarding failures in milliseconds
E.    more CPU intensive than routing protocol adjacency messages

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 941
The network operation center is receiving an excessive number of BFD alerts. This is due to recently configured high-speed links that result in BGP session teardown. Engineers tried to modify the BFD timers, but no improvement was noticed. Which action maximizes network stability?

A.    enable the BFD Dampening feature
B.    fully remove the BFD configuration
C.    modify the IGP hello timers
D.    enable the BGP Dampening feature

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 942
Which three parameters should be checked when you are troubleshooting DWDM technology? (Choose three.)

A.    out-of-multiframe
B.    signal-to-noise-ratio
C.    loss of pointer
D.    crosstalk
E.    channel power
F.    wavelength

Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 943
Which three PIM RP modes does IPv6 multicast support? (Choose three.)

A.    BGP MDT
B.    static RP
C.    embedded RP
D.    anycast RP
E.    auto RP
F.    BSR

Answer: BCF

NEW QUESTION 944
Which component is a correct G.8032 RPL type/node?

A.    RPL peer node
B.    RPL owner node
C.    RPL uplink node
D.    RPL next-peer node

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 945
Which description of SaaS is true?

A.    a service offering a software environment in which applications can be build and deployed
B.    a service offering on-demand software downloads
C.    a service offering that allowing developers to build their own applications
D.    a service offering on-demand licensed applications for end users

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 946
Which MLDv1 message is the equivalent of the IGMP Leave message?

A.    finish
B.    leave
C.    report
D.    done

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 947
An engineer needs to apply an SMU on a Cisco ASR 9000 device. Which high-availability capability minimize the impact of applying an SMU?

A.    install activate
B.    ISSU
C.    graceful restart
D.    NSF
E.    NSR

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 948
Which action enables an IPv6 multicast router on a subnet with locally attached receivers to quickly determine if there is a need to send traffic for a certain multicast group out to that subnet?

A.    Adjust the MLD report interval on the router.
B.    Activate IGPMv3 snooping and fast-leave.
C.    Enable the MLDv2 explicit-tracking feature.
D.    Decrease the ICMPv4 multicast query timer.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 949
Which three Layer 2 VPN pseudowire components are true? (Choose three.)

A.    attachment circuit
B.    bandwidth requirement
C.    route distinguisher
D.    virtual circuit label
E.    pseudowire identifier
F.    route target

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 950
Which two protocols can be used for resilience in a Digital Building Ring topology? (Choose two.)

A.    IS-IS
B.    LLDP
C.    REP
D.    CDP
E.    STP

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 951
……

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NEW QUESTION 77
Your company has a main office and a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to enforce Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) by using conditional access for all users who are NOT physically present in the office. What should you include in the configuration?

A.    a user risk policy
B.    a sign-in risk policy
C.    a named location in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
D.    an Azure MFA Server

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition

NEW QUESTION 78
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 subscription. You use Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP). You need to integrate Microsoft Office 365 Threat Intelligence and Windows Defender ATP. Where should you configure the integration?

A.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select Settings, and then select Services & Add-ins.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, select Threat management, and then select Explorer.
C.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select Reports, and then select Security & Compliance.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, select Threat management and then select Threat tracker.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/integrate-office-365-ti-with-wdatp

NEW QUESTION 79
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server and have advanced auditing enabled. The security logs of the servers are collected by using a third-party SIEM solution. You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to deploy Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) by using standalone sensors. You need to ensure that you can detect when sensitive groups are modified and when malicious services are created. What should you do?

A.    Configure auditing in the Office 365 Security & Compliance center.
B.    Turn off Delayed updates for the Azure ATP sensors.
C.    Modify the Domain synchronizer candidate’s settings on the Azure ATP sensors.
D.    Integrate SIEM and Azure ATP.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

NEW QUESTION 80
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that includes a user named User1. You have a conditional access policy that applies to Microsoft Exchange Online. The conditional access policy is configured to use Conditional Access App Control. You need to create a Microsoft Cloud App Security policy that blocks User1 from printing from Exchange Online. Which type of Cloud App Security policy should you create?

A.    an app permission policy
B.    an activity policy
C.    a Cloud Discovery anomaly detection policy
D.    a session policy

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/session-policy-aad

NEW QUESTION 81
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a user named User1. Several users have full access to the mailbox of User1. Some email messages sent to User1 appear to have been read and deleted before the user viewed them. When you search the audit log in Security & Compliance to identify who signed in to the mailbox of User1, the results are blank. You need to ensure that you can view future sign-ins to the mailbox of User1.
Solution: You run the Set-Maibox -Identity “User1” -AuditEnabled $true command.
Does that meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mailboxes/set-mailbox?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 82
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a user named User1. Several users have full access to the mailbox of User1. Some email messages sent to User1 appear to have been read and deleted before the user viewed them. When you search the audit log in Security & Compliance to identify who signed in to the mailbox of User1, the results are blank. You need to ensure that you can view future sign-ins to the mailbox of User1.
Solution: You run the Set-AuditConfig -Workload Exchange command.
Does that meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-audit/set-auditconfig?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 83
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1. The files in Site1 are protected by using Microsoft Azure Information Protection. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you create a label that designates personal data. You need to auto-apply the new label to all the content in Site1. What should you do first?

A.    From PowerShell, run Set-ManagedContentSettings.
B.    From PowerShell, run Set-ComplianceTag.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a Data Subject Request (DSR).
D.    Remove Azure Information Protection from the Site1 files.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/apply-labels-to-personal-data-in-office-365

NEW QUESTION 84
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to be notified by email whenever an administrator starts an eDiscovery search. What should you do from the Security & Compliance admin center?

A.    From Search & Investigation, create a guided search.
B.    From Events, create an event.
C.    From Alerts, create an alert policy.
D.    From Search & Investigation, create an eDiscovery case.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/alert-policies

NEW QUESTION 85
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. A security manager receives an email message every time a data loss prevention (DLP) policy match occurs. You need to limit alert notifications to actionable DLP events. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the Policy Tips of a DLP policy.
B.    From the Cloud App Security admin center, apply a filter to the alerts.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the User overrides settings of a DLP policy.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the matched activities threshold of an alert policy.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/alert-policies

NEW QUESTION 86
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You create and run a content search from the Security & Compliance admin center. You need to download the results of the content search. What should you obtain first?

A.    an export key
B.    a password
C.    a certificate
D.    a pin

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/export-search-results

NEW QUESTION 87
Hotspot
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Auditing is enabled. A user named User1 is a member of a dynamic security group named Group1. You discover that User1 is no longer a member of Group1. You need to search the audit log to identify why User1 was removed from Group1. Which two actions should you use in the search? (To answer, select the appropriate activities in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance

NEW QUESTION 88
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E5 license. How long will auditing data be retained?

A.    30 days
B.    90 days
C.    365 days
D.    5 years

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance

NEW QUESTION 89
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You create a retention policy and apply the policy to Exchange Online mailboxes. You need to ensure that the retention policy tags can be assigned to mailbox items as soon as possible. What should you do?

A.    From Exchange Online PowerShell, run Start-RetentionAutoTagLearning.
B.    From Exchange Online PowerShell, run Start-ManagedFolderAssistant.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a label policy.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels

NEW QUESTION 90
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to ensure that users can manually designate which content will be subject to data loss prevention (DLP) policies. What should you create first?

A.    A retention label in Microsoft Office 365.
B.    A custom sensitive information type.
C.    A Data Subject Request (DSR).
D.    A safe attachments policy in Microsoft Office 365.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/manage-gdpr-data-subject-requests-with-the-dsr-case-tool#more-information-about-using-the-dsr-case-tool

NEW QUESTION 91
……

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NEW QUESTION 706
What are two base components of both a source-based remotely triggered black hole and a destination-based remotely triggered black hole filtering solution? (Choose two.)

A.    NetFlow
B.    static route withthe next hop pointing to the Null0 interface
C.    infrastructure access list
D.    triggered IBGP update setting next hop to a predetermined, unused IP address
E.    uRPF

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 707
Which routing protocol requires minimal reconfiguration when establishing a MPLS Layer 3 VPN over DMVPN encrypted using GETVPN?

A.    OSPF
B.    RIP
C.    IS-IS
D.    BGP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 708
The campus consists of four main buildings with a single router at each location. A single Ethernet connection exists between each building. Which two EIGRP metrics should be made equal in the network redesign to ensure proper load sharing? (Choose two.)

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Load
C.    Delay
D.    Reliability

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 709
Which option is best suited to maintain Layer 3 separation in a multitenant data center design?

A.    VXLAN
B.    VRF
C.    VDC
D.    VLAN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 710
What is the key design principle for the core layer when using a classic hierarchical network model?

A.    It is designed first, followed by thedistribution layer and then the access layer.
B.    It controls access to resources for security.
C.    It provides server access in asmall campus.
D.    It should be configured with minimal complexity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 711
Which statement about TAP and TUN devices, which are used in a Linux/KVM cloud deployment model, is true?

A.    TUN is for handing IP packets, but TAP is for handing Ethernet frames.
B.    TUN is for handing Ethernet frames, but TAP is for handing IP packets.
C.    TUN is for tunneling IP packets, but TAP is for tapping IP packets.
D.    TUN is for tunnelingEthernet frames, but TAP is for tapping Ethernet frames.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 712
Which two statements define some of the general characteristics of SDN? (Choose two.)

A.    Southbound interfaces are interfaces used between the control plane and the date plane.
B.    OpenFlow isconsidered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
C.    Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the date plane.
D.    The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
E.    OVSDB is an application database management protocol.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 713
A retail company has 250 branches connected to the core via MPLS Layer 3 VPN. The company is migrating from traditional telephony services to a VoIP solution. Which two primary concerns when implementing a VoIP solution are true? (Choose two.)

A.    jitter
B.    available bandwidth
C.    call routing design
D.    call routing design
E.    MTU
F.    SRST

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 714
A customer uses OSPF and BGP in their network. Which solution will continue forwarding packets during a temporary failure of a P node?

A.    Deploy MPLS TE
B.    Enable BGP Flowspec
C.    Enable NSF/GR for OSPF
D.    Deploy IS-IS an IGP instead of OSPF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 715
Which three factors effects the convergence times in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)

A.    OSPF SPF throttling timers
B.    OSPF pacing timers
C.    OSPF LSA throttling
D.    LSA refresh interval
E.    DR/BDR election
F.    OSPF LSA lifetime

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 716
Video traffic is being distributed across a large WAN network. The video source originates from different parts of the multicast domain at different times. Which multicast technology provides optimal path selection between the receiver and the source for this multicast traffic?

A.    Source Specific Multicast
B.    PIM sparse mode
C.    Bidirectional PIM
D.    Any Source Multicast

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 717
What are three common objectives for customers using multiple cloud providers? (Choose three.)

A.    high availability
B.    bandwidth
C.    security
D.    analytics
E.    feature disparity
F.    regional provider access

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 718
For which two reasons would you deploy an IDS sensor in promiscuous mode when designing a security solution? (Choose two.)

A.    The solution stops malicious traffic from reaching its intended target.
B.    The solution allows denying packets inline.
C.    The solution is resistant to sensor failure.
D.    The solution allows for stream normalization.
E.    The solution allows for signature-based pattern matching.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 719
Today most of the enterprises are selecting container technologies that require integration with their existing data centers and infrastructure solutions. With which three factors do enterprises most commonly struggle to enable their current IT operations staff with? (Choose three.)

A.    compliance
B.    data security
C.    performance and availability
D.    cost avoidance
E.    virtualization
F.    data analytics
G.    scalability

Answer: BCG

NEW QUESTION 720
Which two pain points are the most common for container technology adoption? (Choose two.)

A.    container deployment
B.    security
C.    skilled staff
D.    cost
E.    compliance
F.    performance

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 721
An enterprise company is attaching to a new Gigabit Ethernet-based link from the local service provider. This connection must have a 150 Mbps committed information rate. For the design of this new service, which QoS mechanism must be used to ensure low packet loss within the service provider network?

A.    policing
B.    LLQ
C.    shaping
D.    CBWFQ

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 722
Which statement about traffic shaping is true?

A.    It works by minimizing data transmission intervals.
B.    It separates data packets based on certain characteristics by using NBAR.
C.    It regulates data transmission patterns into the network.
D.    It enforces an upper limit on bursty data traffic.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 723
A large enterprise network runs IS-IS. There is a concern that the IS-IS default metrics are not flexible enough. Which IS-IS feature enables increased granularity for traffic on the network?

A.    IS-IS Wide Metrics
B.    IS-IS DIS
C.    IS-IS Multitopology
D.    IS-IS route leaking

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 724
Which two devices are open-source SDN controllers? (Choose two.)

A.    Big Cloud Fabric
B.    OpenDaylight
C.    Virtual Application Networks SDN Controller
D.    Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E.    OpenContrail

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 725
When designing a network that uses IPsec, which technique is suggested to avoid network fragmentation?

A.    Reduce the MTU on the side closest to the server.
B.    Reduce the MTU on both ends of the TCP connection.
C.    Reduce the MTU on the side closest to the client.
D.    Reduce the MTU only in the WAN.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 726
Which solution provides an active/active alternative to spanning-tree?

A.    RSTP
B.    TRILL
C.    MST
D.    Ethernet Ring Protection Switching

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 727
When is it required to leak routes into an IS-IS Level 1 area?

A.    when unequal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and non-backbone areas
B.    when a multicast RP is configured in the non-backbone area
C.    when equal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and non-backbone areas
D.    when MPLS L3VPN PE devices are configured in the Level 1 areas

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 728
A financial trading organization plans to monitor the network latency for multicast market data feeds on a hop-by-hop basis. Which technology must be added to their design to support requirement?

A.    NBAR
B.    IPFIX
C.    PTP
D.    SPAN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 729
When designing fast convergence on a network using a loop-free alternate, on which two bases can the next-hop routes be precomputed? (Choose two.)

A.    per neighbor
B.    per failure type
C.    per prefix
D.    per link
E.    per network type

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 730
Which markup language is used to format Ansible’s playbook?

A.    ADML
B.    YAML
C.    XML
D.    HTML
E.    NAML

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 731
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the optical technology design characteristics on the left to the correct optical technologies on the right. Not all options are used.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 732
Which ISAKMP feature can be used to reduce device CPU load by not sending keepalive messages for known active ISAKMP security associations?

A.    DPD
B.    IKEv2
C.    SPI
D.    Main Mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 733
A large enterprise network has two data centers and a WAN edge in a hub-and-spoke network topology. The entire network is in a single OSPF area. Spoke routers are connected to unreliable WAN links. Which two changes must be made to deploy LSA filtering on the spoke routers? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure the hub routers as ASBRs.
B.    Keep the spoke routers in normal areas.
C.    Configure the hub routers as ABRs.
D.    Place spoke routers in totally stubby areas.
E.    Place spoke routers in stub areas.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 734
The BGP table contains hundreds of thousands of routes. Which design technique improves the convergence time?

A.    Enable TCP path MTU discovery to every neighbor.
B.    Use TCP ports higher than 1024 for your BGP sessions.
C.    Deploy BGP route reflectors instead of full-mesh iBGP.
D.    Deploy BGP confederations within your backbone.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 735
You must make IGP redesign recommendation for a client that has old equipment, with low CPU power and memory, that they do not have budget to replace. They are very concerned about CPU load on the routers. They are using IS-IS as the IGP in a single Layer 1 area and all routers are connected to each other with point-to-point links. Which method do you recommend to reduce or limit CPU overhead caused by IS-IS?

A.    Implement wide style metrics for IS-IS on all routers.
B.    Use mesh groups to limit flooding of LSAs.
C.    Select a router to act as a pseudonode to limit topology synchronization.
D.    Divide the routers into multiple areas and implement address summarization.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 736
……

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NEW QUESTION 406
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)

A.    proprietary and secure
B.    fast route convergence
C.    support for ECMP
D.    support for LACP
E.    support for large hop limit

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 407
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)

A.    OTV
B.    FabricPath
C.    BPDU
D.    vPC
E.    VDC
F.    MPLS

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 408
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.)

A.    port channel
B.    static pinning
C.    virtual port channel
D.    dynamic pinning
E.    Equal-Cost Multipath
F.    RPVST

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 409
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?

A.    port channel
B.    static pinning
C.    virtual port channel
D.    dynamic pinning
E.    Equal-Cost Multipath
F.    RPVST

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 410
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions. Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing?

A.    Transparent
B.    One-Arm
C.    Routed
D.    Inline
E.    Clustered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 411
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?

A.    Transparent
B.    One-Arm
C.    Routed
D.    Inline
E.    Asymmetric Server Normalization

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 412
Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Nexus 1010
B.    VSM
C.    VEM
D.    host vPC
E.    MPIO

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 413
Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A.    VM-FEX
B.    NPIV
C.    Adapter-FEX
D.    NIV
E.    host vPC
F.    NIC teaming

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 414
Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC?

A.    VM-FEX
B.    NPIV
C.    Adapter-FEX
D.    NIV
E.    host vPC
F.    NIC teaming

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 415
Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of server data beginning at the ingress switch port?

A.    Host vPC+
B.    Linksec
C.    MACsec
D.    LACP
E.    IPsec

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 416
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?

A.    A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B.    A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C.    A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D.    A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)

A.    space availability
B.    power capacity
C.    cooling capacity
D.    PCI compliance
E.    application performance

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 418
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?

A.    high-availability during fabric failover
B.    proper placement of server role
C.    over committing CPU resources
D.    additional virtual machine scalability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 419
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Windows XP
B.    Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C.    OS X
D.    VMware vSphere 4.0
E.    VMware vSphere 5.0

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 420
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)

A.    federation and VSAN scoping
B.    VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C.    fabric performance monitoring
D.    event lookup
E.    VSAN zoning

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 421
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? (Choose three.)

A.    packet capture
B.    packet decode
C.    filter and error scan
D.    configure virtual machine
E.    configure Cisco UCS Manager

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 422
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?

A.    packet debug
B.    troubleshoot performance
C.    traffic analysis
D.    API management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 423
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)

A.    export destination IP address
B.    source interface
C.    UDP port number
D.    TCP port number
E.    NAT port number

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 424
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?

A.    32-bit dotted hex
B.    48-bit dotted hex
C.    64-bit dotted hex
D.    128-bit dotted hex
E.    160-bit dotted hex

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 425
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?

A.    FCoE
B.    DCBX
C.    FIP
D.    distributed FCF
E.    802.1Qbb

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 426
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?

A.    GLBP
B.    VRRP
C.    HSRP
D.    SSO
E.    NSF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 427
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?

A.    MPLS
B.    OTV
C.    FabricPath
D.    vCenter
E.    RPVST
F.    MST

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 428
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?

A.    PAgP port channel
B.    LACP
C.    vPC
D.    vPC+
E.    host vPC

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 429
Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer. Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?

A.    Transparent
B.    One-Arm
C.    Routed
D.    Inline
E.    Asymmetric Server Normalization

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 430
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?

A.    OSPF peer authentication
B.    OSPF route authentication
C.    OSPF process authentication
D.    OSPF database exchange authentication

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 431
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?

A.    data center location
B.    support for heterogeneous compute environments
C.    a collapsed core and distribution layer
D.    choice of a hypervisor

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 432
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements?

A.    cloud compute
B.    storage
C.    desktop
D.    network

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 433
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?

A.    OTV
B.    MPLS
C.    LISP
D.    ACE

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 434
Which web browser does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A.    Microsoft Internet Explorer 6.0 or higher
B.    Safari
C.    Google Chrome 21.xx or higher
D.    Safari 5.0
E.    Mozilla Firefox 3.x or lower

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 435
Which two match fields does Cisco NX-OS use as the defaults when you create a flow record? (Choose two.)

A.    match interface input
B.    match interface output
C.    export destination IP address
D.    TCP port number
E.    export format

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 436
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NEW QUESTION 744
Which of the following network topologies is primarily used to connect servers to large network disk arrays?

A.    SAN
B.    MAN
C.    CAN
D.    PAN
E.    LAN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 745
A human resources manager notifies the IT manager the night before an employee will be terminated so the employee’s access rights can be removed. Which of the following policies is being exercised?

A.    Privileged user agreement
B.    AUP
C.    Non-disclosure agreement
D.    Offboarding

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 746
Which of the following protocols are used to configure an email client to receive email? (Choose two.)

A.    IMAP
B.    SMTP
C.    POP
D.    SFTP
E.    TFTP

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 747
A company runs Linux servers In its own datacenter and also on a popular public cloud service provider. The servers hosted by the cloud provider can only be accessed with proper authorization and are only accessed by the company’s datacenter. Which of the following BEST describes the type of cloud architecture being used? (Choose two.)

A.    Private
B.    Hybrid
C.    Public
D.    laaS
E.    PaaS
F.    SaaS

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 748
The help desk is receiving reports of intermittent connections to a server. A help desk technician suspects the server Is unable to establish a three-way handshake due to a DoS attack. Which of the following commands should a network administrator use to confirm the help desk technician’s claim?

A.    nmap
B.    arp
C.    tcpdump
D.    dig

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 749
A company recently completed construction of a new remote office. The network administrator needs to set up new network devices, such as printers and a local file server, at the remote location. The new devices need to be configured on the same Layer 2 network as the main office. Which of the following should the network administrator configure?

A.    Remote desktop gateway
B.    Transport mode IPSec
C.    SSH tunneling
D.    TLS VPN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 750
Which of the following BEST describes the functionality of the root guard feature on a switch?

A.    BPDUs entering the root bridge are Ignored.
B.    The STP root bridge cannot be changed.
C.    Broadcast storms entering from a root port are blocked.
D.    Loop protection Is enabled on the root port of a switch.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 751
A technician discovered a company computer had a virus but was unable to remove it. The technician decided to erase the hard drive to eliminate the threat .Which of the following policies did the technician violate?

A.    Data loss prevention
B.    Incident response
C.    Asset disposal
D.    Acceptable use

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 752
A company hires another firm to test the integrity of its information security controls. This is an example of what?

A.    role separation.
B.    device hardening
C.    risk assessment
D.    penetration testing.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 753
A technician is moving a company to a cloud email service. Several external recipients are reporting that email sent from the company is going to their junk folders because the sender’s identity cannot be verified. Which of the following DNS record types should the technician modify to minimize this problem?

A.    CNAME
B.    PTR
C.    TXT
D.    SRV

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 754
Before upgrading the firmware on several routers, a technician must verify the firmware file received is the same one the vendor provided. Which of the following should the technician use?

A.    3DES encryption
B.    SSL certificate
C.    Digital signatures
D.    MD5 hash

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 755
A vulnerability that would allow an unauthenticated. remote attacker to originate a DoS attack was found in a DHCP client implementation of a switch. Which of the following would BEST resolve the issue?

A.    Verity the default passwords have been changed.
B.    Upgrade to the latest firmware.
C.    Generate new SSH keys.
D.    Review and modify the firewall rules.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 756
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue routing TCP packets to an email server. At which of the following OSI layers is the issue occurring?

A.    Layer 1 – Physical
B.    Layer 3 – Network
C.    Layer 4 – Transport
D.    Layer 7 – Application

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 757
A vendor is installing an Ethernet network in a new hospital wing. The cabling is primarily run above the ceiling grid near air conditioning ducts and sprinkler pipes. Which of the following cable types is required for this installation’?

A.    Plenum
B.    PVC
C.    Single-mode
D.    Cat 7

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 758
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided to implement a secure and user-friendly way to connect to the corporate wireless network Each workstation will be authenticated individually using a unique certificate that will be deployed to the workstation by the organization’s certificate authority. Which of the following authentication methods would meet this requirement?

A.    PEAP
B.    WP2-PSK
C.    Captive portal
D.    EAP-TLS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 759
Which of the following can be used to prevent unauthorized employees from entering restricted areas?

A.    Sign-in sheets
B.    Video cameras
C.    Motion sensors
D.    Swipe badges

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 760
Which of the following is the physical location where the customer-premise equipment comes together with the ISP or third-party telecommunications equipment?

A.    Server room
B.    Equipment closet
C.    Demarcation point
D.    Intermediate distribution frame

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 761
A business with a point-to-point fiber-optic connection is suddenly unable to communicate between locations. A fiber cut is suspected. Which of the following tools should the network technician use to determine the exact location of the cut?

A.    Reflectometer
B.    Cable tester
C.    Loopback tester
D.    Spectrum analyzers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 762
A technician has been asked to diagnose problems with DHCP addressing on a VLAN. The DHCP server responds to pings from the technician’s machine. Which of the following should the technician use to help diagnose the problem?

A.    Packet sniffer
B.    netstat
C.    nslookup
D.    Spectrum analyzer

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 763
Which of the following Is an object held within an MIB?

A.    OUI
B.    OTDR
C.    OID
D.    SNMP host
E.    SNMP agent
F.    SNMP trap

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 764
Which of the following allow for higher fault tolerance, availability, and performance across multiple systems? (Choose two.)

A.    Load balancer
B.    Jumbo frames
C.    Clustering
D.    Round robin
E.    TCP offloading

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 765
A network administrator wants to connect to a remote device via SSH. Which of the following layers of the OSI model is the protocol using?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    5
D.    6
E.    7

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 766
A customer wants to set up a guest wireless network for visitors. The customer prefers to not have a password on the network. Which of the following should a technician set up to force guests to provide information before using the network?

A.    Single sign-on
B.    RADIUS
C.    TACACS+
D.    Captive portal

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 767
A network technician notices that switches of the same model have different commands and security features while administering them. Which of the following hardening techniques should the technician perform on a regular schedule to ensure all switches have the same features and security functionality?

A.    Change the default credentials.
B.    Verify the firmware file hash.
C.    Disable unused switch ports.
D.    Apply patches and updates.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 768
A network technician works in a large environment with several thousand users. Due to the needs of the organization, the network manager has asked the technician to design a solution that accommodates the data needs of all the users, while keeping all data on site. Which of the following solutions should the technician Implement?

A.    SaaS
B.    SAN
C.    NAS
D.    laaS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 769
A company is experiencing exponential growth and has hired many new employees. New users are reporting they cannot log into their systems, even though they are on the same network. The technician can see physical connectivity to the network switch along with their MAC addresses. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A.    VLAN routing
B.    Server-based firewall configuration issue
C.    Patch cable type
D.    DHCP scope availability

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 770
A network administrator installed a multilayer switch In a shared closet. The network team will manage the switch remotely via SSH. Which of the following should the network administrator do to harden the switch in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable TACACS+.
B.    Disable HTTP management.
C.    Configure the loopback.
D.    Enable LACP.
E.    Configure IPv6.
F.    Enable port security.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 771
……

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NEW QUESTION 661
An employee reports work was being completed on a company-owned laptop using a public wireless hot-spot. A pop-up screen appeared, and the user closed the pop-up. Seconds later, the desktop background was changed to the image of a padlock with a message demanding immediate payment to recover the data. Which of the following types of malware MOST likely caused this issue?

A.    Ransomware
B.    Rootkit
C.    Scareware
D.    Spyware

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 662
Which of the following can be mitigated with proper secure coding techniques?

A.    Input validation
B.    Error handling
C.    Header manipulation
D.    Cross-site scripting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 663
Recently the desktop support group has been performing a hardware refresh and has replaced numerous computers. An auditor discovered that a number of the new computers did not have the company’s antivirus software installed on them, Which of the following could be utilized to notify the network support group when computers without the antivirus software are added to the network?

A.    Network port protection
B.    NAC
C.    NIDS
D.    Mac Filtering

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 664
An administrator needs to protect against downgrade attacks due to various vulnerabilities in SSL/TLS. Which of the following actions should be performed? (Choose two.)

A.    Set minimum protocol supported.
B.    Request a new certificate from the CA.
C.    Configure cipher order.
D.    Disable flash cookie support.
E.    Re-key the SSL certificate.
F.    Add the old certificate to the CRL.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 665
A developer needs to utilize AES encryption in an application but requires the speed of encryption and decryption to be as fast as possible. The data that will be secured is not sensitive so speed is valued over encryption complexity. Which of the following would BEST satisfy these requirements?

A.    AES with output feedback
B.    AES with cipher feedback
C.    AES with cipher block chaining
D.    AES with counter mode

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 666
During a code review a software developer discovers a security risk that may result in hundreds of hours of rework. The security team has classified these issues as low risk. Executive management has decided that the code will not be rewritten. This is an example of what?

A.    Risk avoidance
B.    Risk transference
C.    Risk mitigation
D.    Risk acceptance

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 667
A network was down for several hours due to a contractor entering the premises and plugging both ends of a network cable into adjacent network jacks. Which of the following would have prevented the network outage? (Choose two.)

A.    Port Security
B.    Loop Protection
C.    Implicit Deny
D.    Log Analysis
E.    Mac Filtering
F.    Flood Guards

Answer: AF

NEW QUESTION 668
After disabling SSID broadcast, a network administrator still sees the wireless network listed in available networks on a client laptop. Which of the following attacks may be occurring?

A.    Evil Twin
B.    ARP Spoofing
C.    Disassociation Flooding
D.    Rogue access Point
E.    TKIP Compromise

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 669
A security manager is preparing the training portion of an incident plan. Which of the following job roles should receive training on forensics, chain of custody, and the order of volatility?

A.    System owners
B.    Data custodians
C.    First responders
D.    Security guards

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 670
Virtualization that allows an operating system kernel to run multiple isolated instances of the guest is called what?

A.    Process segregation
B.    Software defined network
C.    Containers
D.    Sandboxing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 671
Which of the following is a proprietary protocol commonly used for router authentication across an enterprise?

A.    SAML
B.    TACACS
C.    LDAP
D.    RADIUS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 672
While responding to an incident on a new Windows server, the administrator needs to disable unused services. Which of the following commands can be used to see processes that are listening on a TCP port?

A.    IPCONFIG
B.    Netstat
C.    PSINFO
D.    Net session

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 673
A system administrator must configure the company’s authentication system to ensure that users will be unable to reuse the last ten passwords within a six months period. Which of the following settings must be configured? (Choose two.)

A.    Minimum password age
B.    Password complexity
C.    Password history
D.    Minimum password length
E.    Multi-factor authentication
F.    Do not store passwords with reversible encryption

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 674
An administrator requests a new VLAN be created to support the installation of a new SAN. Which of the following data transport?

A.    Fibre Channel
B.    SAS
C.    Sonet
D.    ISCSI

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 675
Which of the following access control methodologies provides an individual with the most restrictive access rights to successfully perform their authorized duties?

A.    Mandatory Access Control
B.    Rule Based Access Control
C.    Least Privilege
D.    Implicit Deny
E.    Separation of Duties

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 676
An administrator wants to provide onboard hardware based cryptographic processing and secure key storage for full-disk encryption. Which of the following should the administrator use to fulfil the requirements?

A.    AES
B.    TPM
C.    FDE
D.    PAM

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 677
Ann a user has been promoted from a sales position to sales manager. Which of the following risk mitigation strategies would be MOST appropriate when a user changes job roles?

A.    Implement data loss prevention
B.    Rest the user password
C.    User permissions review
D.    Notify incident management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 678
Joe a system architect wants to implement appropriate solutions to secure the company’s distributed database. Which of the following concepts should be considered to help ensure data security? (Choose two.)

A.    Data at rest
B.    Data in use
C.    Replication
D.    Wiping
E.    Retention
F.    Cloud Storage

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 679
A forensics analyst is tasked identifying identical files on a hard drive. Due to the large number of files to be compared, the analyst must use an algorithm that is known to have the lowest collision rate. Which of the following should be selected?

A.    MD5
B.    RC4
C.    SHA-128
D.    AES-256

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 680
A government agency wants to ensure that the systems they use have been deployed as security as possible. Which of the following technologies will enforce protections on these systems to prevent files and services from operating outside of a strict rule set?

A.    Host-based intrusion detection
B.    Host-based firewall
C.    Trusted OS
D.    Antivirus

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 681
An organization receives an email that provides instruction on how to protect a system from being a target of new malware that is rapidly infecting systems. The incident response team investigates the notification and determines it to invalid and notifies users to disregard the email. Which of the following Best describes this occurrence?

A.    Phishing
B.    Scareware
C.    SPAM
D.    Hoax

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 682
A company is implementing a system to transfer direct deposit information to a financial institution. One of the requirements is that the financial institution must be certain that the deposit amounts within the file have not been changed. Which of the following should be used to meet the requirement?

A.    Key escrow
B.    Perfect forward secrecy
C.    Transport encryption
D.    Digital signatures
E.    File encryption

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 683
An organization uses a Kerberos-based LDAP service for network authentication. The service is also utilized for internal web applications. Finally access to terminal applications is achieved using the same authentication method by joining the legacy system to the Kerberos realm. This company is using Kerberos to achieve which of the following?

A.    Trusted Operating System
B.    Rule-based access control
C.    Single sign on
D.    Mandatory access control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 684
A recent audit has revealed that all employees in the bookkeeping department have access to confidential payroll information, while only two members of the bookkeeping department have job duties that require access to the confidential information. Which of the following can be implemented to reduce the risk of this information becoming compromised in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Rule-based access control
B.    Role-based access control
C.    Data loss prevention
D.    Separation of duties
E.    Group-based permissions

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 685
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is steering company towards cloud computing. The CEO is requesting a federated sign-on method to have users sign into the sales application. Which of the following methods will be effective for this purpose?

A.    SAML
B.    RADIUS
C.    Kerberos
D.    LDAP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 686
An administrator is configuring a new Linux web server where each user account is confined to a cheroot jail. Which of the following describes this type of control?

A.    SysV
B.    Sandbox
C.    Zone
D.    Segmentation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 687
A company often processes sensitive data for the government. The company also processes a large amount of commercial work and as such is often providing tours to potential customers that take them into various workspaces. Which of the following security methods can provide protection against tour participants viewing sensitive information at minimal cost?

A.    Strong passwords
B.    Screen protectors
C.    Clean-desk policy
D.    Mantraps

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 688
Joe is a helpdesk specialist. During a routine audit, a company discovered that his credentials were used while he was on vacation. The investigation further confirmed that Joe still has his badge and it was last used to exit the facility. Which of the following access control methods is MOST appropriate for preventing such occurrences in the future?

A.    Access control where the credentials cannot be used except when the associated badge is in the facility.
B.    Access control where system administrators may limit which users can access their systems.
C.    Access control where employee’s access permissions is based on the job title.
D.    Access control system where badges are only issued to cleared personnel.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 689
A security architect is designing an enterprise solution for the sales force of a corporation which handles sensitive customer data. The solution must allow users to work from remote offices and support traveling users. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate control for the architect to focus onto ensure confidentiality of data stored on laptops?

A.    Full-disk encryption
B.    Digital sign
C.    Federated identity management
D.    Cable locks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 690
A security administrator needs a method to ensure that only employees can get onto the internal network when plugging into a network switch. Which of the following BEST meets that requirement?

A.    NAC
B.    UTM
C.    DMZ
D.    VPN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 691
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NEW QUESTION 90
Which two features or functionalities does Cisco Unified Communications Manager provide for Cisco Unified CCE and Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)

A.    agent to agent transfer
B.    Cisco Extension Mobility for agents
C.    call queuing
D.    CTI data on Cisco Agent Desktop screen pop

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 91
In Cisco UCCE, what is the reference design for vmnic configuration on UCS Tested Reference Configuration (TRCs)?

A.    An active-standby scheme.
B.    With UCS B, use only active-active scheme with Fabric Interconnect switch (FI).
C.    Either Mode (active-active or active-standby) with Nexus 1000v.
D.    An active-active non-failover ride scheme.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 92
Which are the three minimum components required in a Cisco Unified CVP VXML “standalone” deployment model? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco Unified CVP reporting server
B.    Cisco Unified CVP Call Studio
C.    Cisco Unified CVP VXML Server
D.    VXML virtual voice browser
E.    VRU peripheral gateway
F.    Egress voice gateway

Answer: BCF

NEW QUESTION 93
Which two features does Cisco Unified Border Element provide when Cisco Unified CCE and Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal are used? (Choose two.)

A.    Load balancing outbound calls.
B.    Secure communication using flow around mode.
C.    Normalize SIP messages using SIP profiles.
D.    Silent Monitor inbound voice calls.
E.    Record calls by forking the media.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 94
In Cisco Finesse, which two workflow action types can be configured via the administration page? (Choose two.)

A.    HTTP Request
B.    Timer Action
C.    Scheduled Call Back
D.    Browser Pop
E.    Run Macro

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 95
Which statement about the Cisco UCCE solution in the virtualized environment is true?

A.    VMware NIC teaming whether in active-active or active-standby configuration on the UCS B/C series is supported.
B.    Nexus 1000V virtual distributed switch can be used but only for 500 agent deployment model.
C.    Cisco UCS VIC can be used on UCS C series TRC models.
D.    Spec-based virtualized servers based on Intel E5 26xx CPU family at speed 2.40 GHz is supported.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 96
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment with geographically redundant central controllers, a new site is added with new redundancy requirements for Administration. Which option is the recommended configuration?

A.    1 – Primary AW, 1 – Secondary AW
B.    1 – Primary AW, 1 – Administration Client
C.    1 – Secondary AW, 1 – Administration Client
D.    2 – Primary Administration Client, 1 – Secondary Administration Client

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 97
In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), which is the last operation a supervisor needs to perform in order to intercept the call?

A.    after a supervisor has transferred the call
B.    after a supervisor has selected a talking agent for monitoring
C.    after a supervisor has started monitoring a call
D.    after a supervisor has barged into a call

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 98
Under which circumstance(s), can the Public/Visible network share the WAN with the Private network in the Cisco UCCE Clustering over the WAN deployments?

A.    SONET WAN with multiple edge devices per Data Center to connect to the SONET ring.
B.    Under no circumstances.
C.    MPLS WAN with a single edge device per Data Center that connects to multiple 1 Gbps WAN circuits and the failover between the WAN circuits is less than 500 ms.
D.    MPLS WAN with multiple 1 Gbps WAN circuits and a fast 100 ms Round Trip latency between Data Centers.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 99
Which two features does the SIP Proxy provide when deployed with Cisco UCCE, Cisco Unified CVP? (Choose two.)

A.    demarcation point between networks
B.    centralized dial plan
C.    SIP VXML voice browser
D.    N+1 or N:N redundancy
E.    load balancer for HTTP and SIP

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 100
Which two features does Cisco Finesse provide as an out-of-the-box agent desktop? (Choose two.)

A.    desktop for third-party ACD
B.    phonebooks and workflows
C.    content sharing gadget
D.    basic call control (answer, hold, retrieve, end, and make call)
E.    agent historical reports

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 101
Erlang calculations are used to size contact center resources. Which two resources are sized by using Erlang-B? (Choose two.)

A.    reporting ports
B.    estimated wait times
C.    PSTN gateway trunks
D.    agents
E.    IVR ports

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 102
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NEW QUESTION 81
When configuring the Cisco CVP Courtesy Callback feature in the ingress and VXML gateway, which configuration is needed to ensure that SIP is set up to forwards SIP INFO messaging?

A.    signaling forward unconditional
B.    signaling forward conditional
C.    signaling forward conditional sip info
D.    signaling forward unconditional sip info
E.    signaling sip forward unconditional

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 82
Which two ICM scripting nodes support dynamic setting? (Choose two.)

A.    Percent Allocation
B.    Precision Queue
C.    Skill Group
D.    Peripheral gateway
E.    Call Type

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 83
Which dial number patterns are needed on a Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise deployment when configuring Cisco Unified CVP?

A.    agent device, network VRU, ringtone, error
B.    ICM dialed number, network VRU, ring back, error
C.    agent device, CUCM VRU, ringtone, survivability
D.    ICM dialed number plan, network VRU, ringtone, error
E.    agent device, network VRU, ringtone, survivability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 84
Using queuing at the edge with SigDigits, which option describes what “param sigdigits 3” on the bootstrap service accomplishes?

A.    Prefix three digits to the dialed number at the end.
B.    Suffix three digits to dialed number.
C.    Truncate three digits from dialed number.
D.    Consider only the first three digits from the dial number.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 85
Which two statements about when you install/deploy Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VMs on VMware ESXi hosts are true? (Choose two.)

A.    You can enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level.
B.    You cannot enable hyper-threading, but you can over-subscribe the vCPU and vRAM.
C.    You can enable hyper-threading at the Guest OS level.
D.    You can enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level, but you cannot over-subscribe the vCPU and vRAM.
E.    You cannot enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 86
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)

A.    ICM Organizational Unit
B.    ICM facility
C.    ICM User Group policy
D.    ICM Security policy
E.    ICM instance
F.    ICM agent users

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 87
Which two Cisco Unified ICM scripting nodes support dynamic setting? (Choose two.)

A.    Call Type
B.    Precision Queue
C.    Skill Group
D.    Percent Allocation

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 88
You have deployed a VXML application named MyVXMLApp. Which variable name must be passed using one of the user.microapp.ToExtVXML ECC variables?

A.    appname=MyVXMLApp
B.    app=MyVXMLapp
C.    vxmlapp=MyVXMLApp
D.    application=MyVXMLApp

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 89
Which three options dictate that MicroApps are not sufficient and require Call Studio for Call Flow scripting? (Choose three.)

A.    Courtesy Callback
B.    recording a .wav file
C.    FTP a file
D.    Emergency Contact Center closure
E.    agent whisper
F.    IVR Outbound option
G.    agent greeting

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 90
Which option describes how many reason codes you can assign across all teams using Cisco Finesse?

A.    50 sign-out reason codes and 50 not ready reason codes for a total of 100.
B.    A total of 100 sign-out reason codes and not ready reason codes.
C.    There is no limit. You can assign as many reason codes as you like.
D.    100 sign-out reason codes and 100 not ready reason codes for a total of 200.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 91
Which three options dictate that MicroApps are not sufficient and require Call Studio for a Call Flow scripting? (Choose three.)

A.    agent greeting
B.    Courtesy Callback
C.    Video prompt
D.    recording a.wav file
E.    agent whisper
F.    IVR Outbound option

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 92
In the Cisco UCCE solution with CVP, what is determined with signification digits?

A.    VXML gateway the call is placed in
B.    agent ACD extension length
C.    external phone number CallerID
D.    how many digits of the dialed number are significant

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 93
The customer is using Cisco Unified Intelligence Center on a virtual machine and reports that the license has become invalid. Which three options can cause this problem? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Publisher is not in service.
B.    IP address was changed.
C.    Time zone was changed.
D.    Number of historical reports exceeded the system limits.
E.    Hostname was changed.
F.    Secondary DNS was changed.

Answer: BCE

NEW QUESTION 94
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber for the Cisco voice gateway is down, how will incoming calls be treated?

A.    The call will get a “fast busy” and be terminated by the gateway.
B.    The voice gateway will reroute the call to a secondary CTI route point.
C.    The voice gateway will use the alternative/backup subscriber in the cluster for call control.
D.    The voice gateway will route around the subscriber to an IP IVR port.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 95
Which three methods ensure that Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise route requests that experience unexpected scripting conditions are counted as default-routed rather than errors in call type reports? (Choose three.)

A.    Test your scripts to ensure that all routing logic is correct.
B.    Configure default labels for each dialed number using the Configuration Manager.
C.    Include a Termination node with Termination type of default label for all scripts in which there is some unexpected input.
D.    In all routing scripts, account for failure by creating a path for calls that encounter unexpected conditions.
E.    Configure default labels for each skill group using the Configuration Manager.
F.    In all routing scripts, account for failure by triggering one of the congestion control features to handle the call.

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 96
Which tool is available to expand the size of Cisco Unified ICM databases?

A.    Microsoft SQL Studio
B.    DBExpand
C.    Database sizing utility
D.    ICMDBA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 97
Which tool can be used to monitor Cisco Unified Communications Manager statistics?

A.    Real-Time Monitoring Tool
B.    Operations Console
C.    Performance Monitor
D.    Cisco Unified Contact Center Domain Manager

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 98
The current operating status for multiple devices is displayed in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal OAMP Control Center tab within the Operations Console web page. Which three devices show an operating status? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.    Cisco Unified CVP reporting server
C.    SIP proxy server
D.    Cisco Unified CVP call server
E.    Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise server
F.    VXML gateway
G.    Cisco Unified CVP VXML server

Answer: BDG

NEW QUESTION 99
Which four items does the Cisco Finesse administrative application allow administrators to configure? (Choose four.)

A.    connections to the CTI OS server and the Administration & Data server database
B.    cluster settings for VOS replication
C.    ready and login reason codes
D.    wrap-up reasons and phonebooks
E.    workflows and workflow actions
F.    call variable and ECC variable layout
G.    desktop layout and conference resources
H.    upload third-party gadgets

Answer: BDEF

NEW QUESTION 100
Which CLI command is run on Cisco Unified Intelligence Center to check database replication?

A.    utils dbreplication status
B.    show dbreplication status
C.    utils replication status
D.    show replication status

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 101
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NEW QUESTION 323
What technology delivers packets from an outside virtual machine network directly to a virtualized host operating system?

A.    SET
B.    RDMA
C.    VMQ
D.    FIFO

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 324
You are the administrator of a new Windows Server 2016 machine. You need to install WSUS. From where do you install WSUS?

A.    Add/Remove Programs
B.    Programs
C.    Server Manager
D.    Administrative Tools

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 325
What visual representation does Resource Monitor use when information is filtered?

A.    A red filter label
B.    A green highlight
C.    An exclamation point
D.    An orange bar

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 326
Which of the following is not an option for Nano Server management?

A.    Terminal Services
B.    Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
C.    Windows Remote Management
D.    Emergency Management Services (EMS)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 327
After you install the NLB feature, what management tool is available from Server Manager?

A.    Network Load Balancing Manager
B.    Application Balancing Manager
C.    Storage Manager
D.    Cluster Manager

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 328
What is the footprint of the VHD for Nano Server Datacenter Edition?

A.    1 GB
B.    2.4 GB
C.    4.6 GB
D.    509 MB

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 329
How much space does a VHDX support?

A.    8 TB
B.    2 TB
C.    64 TB
D.    1 TB

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 330
What PowerShell command deletes a container?

A.    Delete-Container
B.    Remove-Container
C.    Erase-Container
D.    Scrub-Container

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 331
Which virtual switch type permits communication between the VMs on the host and between the VMs and the host itself?

A.    Internal
B.    Private
C.    Firewall
D.    Shielded

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 332
Your company has a single-purpose web server used to deploy web applications and web services. This server runs a Windows Web Server 2008 edition. You plan to upgrade this server to Windows Server 2016. Which of the following Windows Server 2016 editions will you use?

A.    Windows Server 2016 Datacenter
B.    Windows Server 2016 Professional
C.    Windows Server 2016 Standard
D.    Windows Web Server 2016

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 333
Your company needs to deploy a single physical DNS and IIS using Windows Server 2016. You decide to perform a Nano Server installation to minimize resource consumption on the server. Which two steps will enable you to complete this installation? (Choose two.)

A.    Run Windows Server 2016 setup wizard.
B.    Create a VHD and deploy as a bootable drive.
C.    Create a WIM file.
D.    Create a VHD and deploy the image as a virtual machine.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 334
You need to deploy a Nano Server using Windows Server 2016 Standard edition. After you have configured the network and firewall settings, you need to be able to remotely manage your server from you Windows 10 workstation. Which options WILL NOT work? (Choose two.)

A.    Windows PowerShell remoting
B.    Windows Remote Shell (WinRS)
C.    Group Policy
D.    Remote Desktop

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 335
You have a newly installed Windows Server 2016 full computer. You need to create and manage new volumes in the server. You launch Disk Management tools and you need to identify available options. What option will NOT be available?

A.    New Simple Volume
B.    New Spanned Volume
C.    New Striped Volume
D.    New Standard Volume

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 336
Your company needs to implement enterprise storage solutions using both iSCSI and fiber channel storage devices using Windows Server 2016. You have been asked to provide a solution that will help to automate management of both types of storage devices. Which feature should you use?

A.    iSNS
B.    DCB
C.    MPIO
D.    NAS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 337
You have created and configured file shares in your newly installed Windows Server 2016 computer using SMB Shares. You want to check those users who have open files on your SMB Shares. Which of the following cmdlets will you use?

A.    Set-SmbShare
B.    Get-SmbOpenFile
C.    Get-SmbSession
D.    Set-SMBBandwidthLimit

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 338
Your company has implemented a Windows Server 2016 infrastructure for file storage and sharing. You have been asked to provide a solution that will help store more data using less physical space. You have installed Data Deduplication service role and would like to identify volumes on which you will enable deduplication. Which of the following type of volumes, drives or files cannot be used for Data duplication? (Choose three.)

A.    System volume
B.    ReFS data volume
C.    Boot volume
D.    Encrypted files

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 339
Your organization has a data center that is using Windows Server 2016. You need to review the level of access that administrators have for virtual machines in order to ensure that each machine is accessible only by its administrators. Which feature will you use?

A.    Production checkpoints
B.    Discrete device assignment
C.    Shielded virtual machines
D.    Nested virtualization

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 340
You are required to create new virtual machine hard disks in Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V infrastructure. What types of VHD can you create? (Choose three.)

A.    Pass-through
B.    Differencing
C.    Expendable
D.    Fixed-size

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 341
Your company has two datacenter locations. A Windows Server 2016 stretch cluster is built across both sites. You want to dynamically adjust the witness vote based on the number of voting nodes in the current cluster membership. Which of the following dynamic witnesses will best address your need?

A.    No witness
B.    File-share witness
C.    Disk witness
D.    Azure Cloud witness

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 342
Server manager is a great tool for managing most of your server settings and configuration all in one central place. Which one of the following Server manager Features is used for Storage management, replication and searching?

A.    Dynamic Host Configuration Server
B.    Terminal Services
C.    Domain Name Service
D.    File Services

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 343
Nano Server is a remotely administered server operating system optimized for private clouds and datacenters. It is similar to Windows Server in Server Core mode, but significantly smaller, has no local logon capability, and only supports 64-bit applications, tools, and agents. It takes up far less disk space, sets up significantly faster, and requires far fewer updates and restarts than Windows Server. When it does restart, it restarts much faster. Which edition of Server 2016 is Nano Server available on?

A.    Datacenter and Standard
B.    Standard only
C.    Datacenter only
D.    Enterprise only

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 344
With Nano Server some packages are installed directly with their own Windows PowerShell switches (such as -Compute); others you install by passing package names to the -Packages parameter, which you can combine in a comma-separated list. You want to add the Hyper-V role to your Nano Server, which command should you use?

A.    -Packages
B.    -Compute
C.    -Containers
D.    -Storage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 345
Which of the following reasons justifies why you should audit failed events?

A.    To monitor for malicious attempts to access a resource which has been denied.
B.    To log resource access for reporting and billing.
C.    To monitor access that would suggest users are performing actions greater than you had planned.
D.    None of these.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 346
When you install Windows Server 2016 using the Setup wizard, you can choose between Windows Server 2016 and Windows Server (Server with Desktop Experience). If you do not make a choice in the Setup wizard, Windows Server 2016 is installed; this is the Server Core installation option.
You have chosen to install using the Server Core option. How would you install, configure, and uninstall server roles locally?

A.    Using Server Manager
B.    Using the Microsoft Management Console
C.    Using Server Manager or Windows PowerShell
D.    Using Windows PowerShell

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 347
You have a server named Server1 that contains five volumes. You install Data Deduplication on Server1. You plan to enable Data Deduplication on volumes that can achieve a space saving of 50 percent or greater. What should you run to identify on which volumes you should enable Data Deduplication?

A.    ddpeval.exe
B.    Optimize-Volume
C.    ddpcli.exe
D.    diskpart.exe
E.    Get-DedupVolume

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 348
You have three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. The servers are members of a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster named Cluster1. You need to configure the handling priority for the traffic on port 443. What should you do in Network Load Balancing Manager?

A.    From the cluster properties, configure the host priority.
B.    From the host properties, configure the Filtering mode of a port rule.
C.    From the host properties, configure the host priority.
D.    From the cluster properties, configure the Filtering mode of a port rule.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 349
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 contains a virtual disk named Disk1.vhdx in a folder named D:\Folder1. Disk1.vhdx contains an installation of Windows Server 2016. You need to add the Telnet Client feature to Disk1.vhdx while the installation is offline.
Solution: At a command prompt, you run dism.exe to mount an image, enable a feature, and then dismount the image.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 350
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 contains a virtual disk named Disk1.vhdx in a folder named D:\Folder1. Disk1.vhdx contains an installation of Windows Server 2016. You need to add the Telnet Client feature to Disk1.vhdx while the installation is offline.
Solution: From Server Manager, you run the Add Roles and Features wizard.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 351
Hotspot
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that has two network adapters. You need to create a NIC team on VM1. Which cmdlets should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 352
Hotspot
You have a server named Server1 that has Docker Engine ?Enterprise installed. You create a container registry named Registry1 in a Microsoft Azure subscription. You create a container image named image1 on Server1. You need to store image1 in Registry1. Which command should you run on Server1? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 353
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NEW QUESTION 261
You plan to deploy a Software Defined Networking (SDN) infrastructure. Which service provides name resolution for the virtual machines on a tenant network?

A.    a smart host
B.    Network Controller
C.    iDNS
D.    iSNS

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/sdn/technologies/idns-for-sdn

NEW QUESTION 262
You have a server named Server1 that connects directly to multiple networks. You need to configure Server1 as a BGP router. What should you install on Server1?

A.    the MultiPoint Services server role
B.    the Network Policy and Access Services server role
C.    the Network Controller server role
D.    the Routing role service

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/bgp/border-gateway-protocol-bgp

NEW QUESTION 263
You want to test DANE and TLSA records in your testing environment. You want to use only certificates that do not have to be signed by a valid CA. Which value should you use for the Certificate Usage parameter when you create your TLSA records with the PowerShell cmdlet Add-DnsServerRecourseRecord?

A.    Service Certificate Constraint
B.    Domain Issued Certificates
C.    CAConstraint
D.    TrustAnchor Assertion

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 264
What are two core functionalities of DANE? (Choose two.)

A.    Enables you to specify which CA is allowed to issue certificates for a resource.
B.    Authenticates TLS client and server entities without a Certificate Authority.
C.    Improves DNS response performance from Windows Server 2016 DNS servers.
D.    Simplifies certificate validation in a mixed IPv4/IPv6 environment.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 265
You want to configure your Windows Server 2016 VPN server so that only EAP authentication protocol connections are allowed. Which PowerShell cmdlet can you use to verify which user authentication protocols your VPN server accepts?

A.    Get-VpnConnection
B.    Get-VpnServerConfiguration
C.    Get-VpnS2Sinterface
D.    Get-VpnAuthProtocol

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 266
Your Windows Server 2016 NPS server works as a RADIUS server. It stops processing connection requests and prevents users from accessing network resources. The NPS server is configured to use local NPS log files. Which configuration can prevent such problems? (Choose three.)

A.    Keep NPS log files separate from the system partition.
B.    Use an NPS replica server.
C.    Use a RADIUS server group.
D.    Use SQL logging instead of NPS log files.

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 267
Which command do you have use if you want to use the BranchCache feature for your application server?

A.    Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache, BITS
B.    Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache
C.    Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache, FS-BranchCache
D.    Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache, FS-Data-Deduplication

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268
You manage a domain named pearson.com. You have a Windows Server 2016 DHCP server named DHCP1 and you want to implement DHCP failover with hot standby mode. You want to choose DHCP2, which is a Windows Server 2016 Nano Server, as a partner server. Which changes must you make so that you can use DHCP2 as a DHCP failover replication partner for DHCP1? (Choose two.)

A.    Authorize DHCP server DHCP2 in ADDS.
B.    Add DHCP server DHCP2 to the domain pearson.com.
C.    Replace DHCP2 with a Windows Server 2016 Datacenter server.
D.    Install the DHCP server role on DHCP2 and authorize DHCP2.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 269
You need to import 50 IP addresses from the network 112.20.5.0/24 into your IPAM database through a CSV file named addresses.csv. The CSV file contains data for a field named Division. Which configuration steps should you perform? (Choose two.)

A.    Use Add-IPAMCustomField to create the Division field.
B.    Use Format-Custom to prepare the Division field.
C.    Use Add-IPAMCustomValue to add values to Division.
D.    Use Import-IPAMAddress to import from addresses.csv.
E.    Use Import-IpamSubnet to import from addresses.csv.
F.    Use Import-IpamRange to import from addresses.csv.
G.    Ensure that the RIR field and values are available in addresses.csv.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 270
On which object can you configure a persistent site-to-site VPN connection?

A.    Connection Request Policy on the answering router.
B.    Connection Request Policy on the calling router.
C.    Network Policy on the answering router.
D.    Network Policy on the calling router.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 271
You have established a P2S connection to your Azure VNet. You want to verify the gateway IP address through which the P2S network traffic flows. Which command can you use?

A.    Get-AzureVNetGateway
B.    Get-NetRoute
C.    Get-NetIPInterface
D.    Get-VpnConnection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 272
The socket pool enables a DNS server to use source port randomization when issuing DNS queries. Which command offers the greatest protection?

A.    dnscmd /Config /SocketPoolSize 1000
B.    dnscmd /Config /SocketPoolSize 0
C.    dnscmd /Config /SocketPoolSize 1
D.    dnscmd /Config /SocketPoolSize 1000 /SocketPoolExcludedPortRanges 1-65535

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 273
Many enterprise applications are developed for and hosted on Internet Information Services (IIS) web servers. Typically, the application is accessed from browsers on client computers. For these deployments, IT departments can benefit from prioritizing the network traffic that is associated with web-based applications. Policy-based QoS provides a feature, known as URL-based Policies, that enables administrators to place HTTP responses-to applications that are built on top of HTTP-subject to QoS control. Which URL below will recieve precedence (highest priority)?

A.    URL host
B.    URL scheme
C.    URL path
D.    URL port

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 274
With client reservations, you can reserve an IP address for permanent use by a DHCP client. Typically, you will need to do this if the client uses an IP address that was assigned using another method for TCP/IP configuration. If you are reserving an IP address for a new client, or an address that is different from its current one, you should verify that the address has not already been leased by the DHCP server. Reserving an IP address in a scope does not automatically force a client currently using that address to stop using it. Which ipconfig command would you use if the address is already in use?

A.    ipconfig /flushdns
B.    ipconfig /release
C.    ipconfig /registerdns
D.    ipconfig /renew

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 275
As traffic increases on a network, it becomes increasingly important for IT departments to balance network performance with the cost of service. However, network traffic is not easily prioritized and managed. Mission-critical and latency-sensitive applications must compete for bandwidth against lower priority traffic. At the same time, some users and computers with specific network performance requirements might require differentiated service levels. In Windows Server 2016, Policy-based QoS provides a new feature, known as URL-based Policies, that enables administrators to place HTTP responses-to applications that are built on top of HTTP-subject to QoS control. Which URL host below has the highest priorty?

A.    selfguide.mycompany.com
B.    video.training.hr.mycompany.com
C.    training
D.    mycompany.com

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 276
With the advent of subnetting, one can no longer rely on the definition of the IP address classes to determine the network ID in the IP address. A new value is needed to define which part of the IP address is the network ID and which part is the host ID regardless of whether class-based or subnetted network IDs are being used. The network ID 138.23.0.0/24 implies a range of valid host IP addresses from?

A.    138.23.0.1 to 138.23.255.254
B.    138.23.0.1 to 138.23.24.0
C.    138.23.0.1 to 138.23.0.24
D.    138.23.0.1 to 138.23.0.254

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 277
Because the network ID bits must always be chosen in a contiguous fashion from the high order bits, a shorthand way of expressing a subnet mask is to denote the number of bits that define the network ID as a network prefix using the network prefix notation: /<# of bits>. What is the Network Prefix for Class B?

A.    /8
B.    /64
C.    /24
D.    /16

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 278
Server manager is a great tool for managing most of your server settings and configuration all in one central place. Which one of the following Server manager Features is used for management of Public Key Infrastructure?

A.    Active Directory Certificate Services
B.    Dynamic Host Configuration Server
C.    Domain Name Service
D.    WINS Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 279
DNS policy is a new feature in Windows Server 2016 that enables you to control how a DNS server behaves in a particular set of circumstances. What is the name of the circumstance where the DNS server responds to clients based on whether the client is external or interal to your organizations intranet?

A.    Filtering
B.    Split-brain
C.    Forensics
D.    Traffic management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 280
Hotspot
You have a Remote Access infrastructure. You plan to implement DirectAccess. Which type of certificate should you install on each DirectAccess server? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/directaccess/single-server-advanced/da-adv-plan-s1-infrastructure#16-plan-management-servers
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/ras/manage-remote-clients/install/step-2-configure-the-remote-access-server

NEW QUESTION 281
……

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NEW QUESTION 156
An engineer is configuring a user login with external domain in Cisco UCS Director. What are the terms of changing the password?

A.    An administrator can change it with Active Directory integration.
B.    An administrator can change it with MS LDAP integration and SSL.
C.    A user can change it with open LDAP.
D.    A user must change it using Active Directory.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 157
Which type of containers are managed by Cisco VACS?

A.    Windows Containers
B.    Application Container
C.    Linux Containers
D.    VM Containers

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 158
When defining a Cisco Virtual Application Container template within Cisco UCS Director, which important is needed in regards to security posture?

A.    Cisco Nexus ACLs that must be deleted.
B.    Network ports that must be enabled.
C.    Firewall contexts that require rule updates.
D.    Edge Sourcefire IPS that must disabled.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 159
After experiencing an unexpected storage outage, a cloud administrator finds the Cisco UCS Director VM is corrupted. Which feature can be utilized to recover from this impaired state?

A.    VM Live Migration
B.    Log File Analysis
C.    VM High Availability
D.    Database Restore
E.    UCS Service Profiles

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 160
When RBAC is being used within a UCS Director environment, how can a server team member be delivered the rights of a network admin?

A.    Assigning the Network Admin privileges to the user.
B.    Copying server workflows into the network team.
C.    Changing the user’s role to Network Admin.
D.    Creating a new role with privileges from both teams.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 161
A cloud admin wants to change the memory options in an existing UCS Director catalog used by developers to create new virtual machines. Which policy must be modified in order to accomplish this?

A.    Storage
B.    Computing
C.    Service Delivery
D.    Network

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 162
A Cisco UCS Director system administrator wants to control the catalog items that a consumer sees in the standard service catalog. Which option should be applied to a user account?

A.    Customer Organization
B.    Login Name
C.    Compute Policy
D.    User Role

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 163
A cloud admin must modify a Cisco UCS Director catalog item to deliver more memory options to developers when deploying new applications. Which policy must be modified to accomplish this task?

A.    system
B.    compute
C.    storage
D.    virtualization

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 164
An engineer is having issues with a virtual machine running VACS and Nexus 1000V. Which action will assist the engineer in troubleshooting the issues?

A.    Enable ERSPAN on the virtual application container and supply a destination for forwarding and analyzing traffic.
B.    Enable ERSPAN on the 1000V virtual switch and supply a destination for forwarding and analyzing traffic.
C.    Perform a `show tech’ on the container and forward the output to TAC.
D.    Create a detailed report outlining the appropriate values for the issue.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 165
When placing an order as a Prime Service Catalog end user, which two locations can be checked for status on open requisitions? (Choose two.)

A.    My Stuff
B.    Administration
C.    Order Management
D.    Service Portal
E.    Help

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 166
Which two are types of internal dictionaries in Cisco Prime Service catalog? (Choose two.)

A.    Internal Free-Form
B.    Length Based
C.    Key Paired-Based
D.    Service Item-Based
E.    Orchestration Based

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 167
Which UDP port is used for NTP within a data center network?

A.    443
B.    123
C.    53
D.    80

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 168
Which action must an engineer take to create SNMP traps within Cisco UCS Performance Manager?

A.    Ensure sufficient bandwidth.
B.    Define the SNMP trap host.
C.    Create a trigger.
D.    Select a port channel.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 169
Which two Cisco Prime Service Catalog templates are Cisco UCS Director based services? (Choose two.)

A.    Install Jabber for iPad
B.    Register BYOD Personal Device
C.    Reset Voicemail Password
D.    Create Load-balance Service
E.    Add VM to Virtual Data Center

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 170
How can a virtualization engineer validate that a Cisco UCS Director workflow has provisioned a virtual machine within VMware?

A.    A new service profile is provisioned by Cisco UCS Manager.
B.    A new entry appears in vSphere Recent Tasks.
C.    A new datastore appears under the host configuration tab.
D.    An SNMP trap is sent from the ESXi host.
E.    An alert in entered under the vSphere Alarms tab.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 171
Which UCS Director feature allows for departmental chargeback within a private cloud infrastructure?

A.    VPLEX
B.    RBAC
C.    Cost Models
D.    Advanced Workflows
E.    CloudSense Reports

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 172
In Cisco UCS Performance Manager, an engineer wants to set up a custom selection of servers to check server health and monitor status. The engineer should use which option to complete this task?

A.    host group
B.    threshold group
C.    cluster
D.    service profile

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 173
A program is set up to count the number of lines in a file. An engineer is performing cloud monitoring to check the performance. What is the result for this program?

A.    cache bound
B.    I/O bound
C.    CPU bound
D.    memory bound

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 174
Which Cisco UCS Performance Manager dashboard display helps an engineer to monitor bandwidth consumption?

A.    UCS Inventory
B.    Blade Server Capacity
C.    Chassis Capacity
D.    Domain Overview

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 175
Which option can be visually determined when using host group dependency mapping to improve troubleshooting?

A.    communication patterns of ESXi hosts
B.    VMs communication network
C.    resource utilization of Cisco UCS domains
D.    underlying infrastructure for a group of hosts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 176
Drag and Drop
An engineer needs to back up the UCS Director database. Drag the steps on the left to the order they must be performed on the right. Not all options used.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 177
Which of the following is an invalid tool for Chargeback Implementation?

A.    Capacity analysis tool
B.    Billing system
C.    Chargeback mediation tool
D.    Data provisioning tools

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 178
Which two image types are used by a KVM hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A.    VHD
B.    RAW
C.    QCOW2
D.    EXIF
E.    VMDK3

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 179
An engineer must access VMs provisioned from different assigned resources by using predefined policies in Cisco UCS Director. Which component provides this access?

A.    Orchestrator
B.    Stack Designer
C.    Storefront
D.    Portal

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180
In which two locations can a Prime Service catalog user find the status of ongoing orders? (Choose two.)

A.    Service Manager
B.    Notifications
C.    My Stuff
D.    Account Settings
E.    Shopping Cart

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 181
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NEW QUESTION 178
Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) environment. Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops that are connected to the corporate network. You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users.
Solution: Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use pass-through authentication and select the Enable single sign-on option.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 179
Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) environment. Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops that are connected to the corporate network. You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users.
Solution: Configure an AD DS server in an Azure virtual machine (VM). Configure bidirectional replication.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 180
You are designing a security solution for a company’s Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The company currently uses Azure AD Premium for all employees. Contractors will periodically access the corporate network based on demand. You must ensure that all employees and contractors are required to log on by using two-factor authentication. The solution must minimize costs. You need to recommend a solution. What should you recommend?

A.    Purchase Azure Multi-Factor Authentication licenses for the employees and the contractors.
B.    Use the Multi-Factor Authentication provider in Azure and configure the usage model for each authentication type.
C.    Use the Multi-Factor Authentication provider in Azure and configure the usage model for each enabled user.
D.    Purchase Azure Multi-Factor Authentication licenses for the contractors only.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 181
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AZD) tenant named contoso.com. The tenant contains a group named Group1. Group1 contains all the administrative user accounts. You discover several login attempts to the Azure portal from countries where administrative users do NOT work. You need to ensure that all login attempts to the Azure portal from those countries require Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
Solution: You implement an access package.
Does this solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 182
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AZD) tenant named contoso.com. The tenant contains a group named Group1. Group1 contains all the administrative user accounts. You discover several login attempts to the Azure portal from countries where administrative users do NOT work. You need to ensure that all login attempts to the Azure portal from those countries require Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
Solution: Implement Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
Does this solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 183
You have 100 Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages that are configured to use 10 on-premises SQL Server databases as their destinations. You plan to migrate the 10 on-premises databases to Azure SQL Database. You need to recommend a solution to host the SSIS packages in Azure. The solution must ensure that the packages can target the SQL Database instances as their destinations. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    Data Migration Assistant
D.    Azure Data Catalog

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 184
You develop a new Azure Web App that uses multiple Azure blobs and static content. The Web App uses a large number of JavaScript files and cascading style sheets. Some of these files contain references to other files. Users are geographically dispersed. You need to minimize the time to load individual pages. What should you do?

A.    Migrate the Web App to Azure Service Fabric.
B.    Use an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN).
C.    Implement an Azure Redis Cache.
D.    Create a services layer by using an Azure-hosted ASP.NET web API.
E.    Enable the Always On feature of the Web App.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 185
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Blob storage account named store1. You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 stores 500 GB of company files. You need to store a copy of the company files in store1. Which two possible Azure services achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    an Azure Import/Export job
B.    an integration account
C.    an Azure Batch account
D.    Azure data Factory
E.    an On-premises data gateway

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 186
You have a web app named App1 that is hosted on-premises and on four Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine is in a different region. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users will always connect to the closest instance of App1. The solution must prevent the users from attempting to connect to a failed instance of App1. Which two possible recommendations achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Front Door Service
B.    Azure Load Balancer
C.    round-robin DNS
D.    Azure Traffic Manager
E.    Azure Application Gateway

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 187
You are designing a microservices architecture that will support a web application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Allow independent upgrades to each microservice
– Deploy the solution on-premises and to Azure
– Set policies for performing automatic repairs to the microservices
– Support low-latency and hyper-scale operations
You need to recommend a technology. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Service Fabric
B.    Azure Container Service
C.    Azure Container Instance
D.    Azure Virtual Machine Scale Set

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 188
Hotspot
You plan to deploy a network-intensive application to several Azure virtual machines. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
– Minimizes the use of the virtual machine processors to transfer data
– Minimizes network latency
Which virtual machine size and feature should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sizes-hpc#h-series

NEW QUESTION 189
A company has the requirement to have an automated process in place which would upload logs to an Azure SQL database every week. Reports would then be generated from the SQL database. Which of the following would you use for this requirement?

A.    The AzCopy tool
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    Azure HDInsight
D.    Data Migration Assistant

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use the Azure Data Factory to create a pipeline that can be used to copy data. Option A is incorrect since this is used for copying data from Azure storage accounts to on-premise and vice versa. Option C is incorrect since this is used to run Big data open source frameworks. Option D is incorrect since this is used to migrate data between SQL servers.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/connector-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 190
Your team needs to deploy a Virtual machine that will host a SQL Server. The Virtual machine will have 2 data disks, one for the log file and the other for the data files. You need to recommend a caching policy for each disk. Which of the following would you recommend for the data disk containing the logs?

A.    None
B.    ReadOnly
C.    WriteOnly
D.    ReadWrite

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sql/virtual-machines-windows-sql-performance

NEW QUESTION 191
A company has setup an Azure subscription and an Azure tenant. You need to provide the development team to be able to start and stop Virtual Machines. The access needs to be granted on specific occasions only. You need to ensure the permission gets assigned and use the principle of least privilege. You also need to minimize costs. Which of the following security feature would you use for the requirement?

A.    Conditional Access policy
B.    Azure Policies
C.    Just in time VM access
D.    Privileged Identity Management

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 192
A company has deployed several applications across Windows and Linux Virtual machines in Azure. Log Analytics are being used to send the required data for alerting purposes for the Virtual Machines. You need to recommend which tables need to be queried for security related queries. Which of the following would you query for events from Windows Event Logs?

A.    Azure Activity
B.    Azure Diagnostics
C.    Event
D.    Syslog

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-windows-events

NEW QUESTION 193
A company is planning on deploying an Azure Web App to 2 regions. One of the key requirements is to ensure that the web app is always running if an Azure region fails. You need to ensure deployment costs are minimized. Which of the following service would you include in the deployment of the solution?

A.    Azure Functions
B.    Azure Traffic Manager
C.    Azure Application Gateway
D.    Azure Load Balancer

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-overview

NEW QUESTION 194
A company has deployed several applications across Windows and Linux Virtual machines in Azure. Log Analytics are being used to send the required data for alerting purposes for the Virtual Machines. You need to recommend which tables need to be queried for security related queries. Which of the following would you query for events from Linux system logging?

A.    Azure Activity
B.    Azure Diagnostics
C.    Event
D.    Syslog

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-syslog

NEW QUESTION 195
A company is planning on deploying a stateless based application based on microservices using the Azure Service Fabric service. You need to design the infrastructure that would be required in the Azure Service Fabric service. Which of the following should you consider? (Choose two.)

A.    The number of node types in the cluster.
B.    The properties for each node type.
C.    The network connectivity.
D.    The service tier.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-fabric/service-fabric-cluster-capacity

NEW QUESTION 196
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?

A.    apt-get update
B.    apt-get upgrade
C.    apt-cache update
D.    apt-get refresh
E.    apt-cache upgrade

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which function key is used to start Safe Mode in Windows NT?

A.    F10
B.    F8
C.    F6
D.    Windows NT does not support Safe Mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands can be used to perform a full text search on all available packages on a Debian system?

A.    apt
B.    apt-cache
C.    apt-get
D.    apt-search
E.    dpkg

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands can be used to create a USB storage media from a disk image?

A.    gdisk
B.    dd
C.    cc
D.    fdisk
E.    mount

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Bash built-in export command?

A.    It allows disks to be mounted remotely.
B.    It runs a command as a process in a subshell.
C.    It makes the command history available to subshells.
D.    It sets up environment variables for applications.
E.    It shares NFS partitions for use by other systems on the network.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands moves and resumes in the background the last stopped shell job?

A.    run
B.    bg
C.    fg
D.    back

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
When starting a program with the nice command without any additional parameters, which nice level is set for the resulting process?

A.    -10
B.    0
C.    10
D.    20

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
Which variable defines the directories in which a Bash shell searches for executable commands?

A.    BASHEXEC
B.    BASHRC
C.    PATH
D.    EXECPATH
E.    PATHRC

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following are valid stream redirection operators within Bash? (Choose three.)

A.    <
B.    <<<
C.    >
D.    >>>
E.    %>

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the device file name for the second partition on the only SCSI drive?

A.    /dev/hda1
B.    /dev/sda2
C.    /dev/sd0a2
D.    /dev/sd1p2

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
When creating a hard link to an ordinary file, it returns an error, what could be the reason for this?

A.    The source file is hidden.
B.    The source file is read-only.
C.    The source file is a shell script.
D.    The source file is already a hard link.
E.    The source and the target are on different filesystems.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 12
Instead of supplying an explicit device in /etc/fstab for mounting, what other options may be used to identify the intended partition? (Choose two.)

A.    FIND
B.    ID
C.    LABEL
D.    NAME
E.    UUID

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands are common Linux commands for file management? (Choose three.)

A.    copy
B.    mv
C.    move
D.    cp
E.    mkdir

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 14
Which signal is sent by the kill command by default?

A.    SIGHUP(1)
B.    SIGQUIT(3)
C.    SIGKILL(9)
D.    SIGTERM(15)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands converts spaces in a file to tab characters and prints the result to standard output?

A.    iconv
B.    expand
C.    unexpand
D.    tab

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16
Which command is used to query information about the available packages on a Debian system?

A.    apt-cache
B.    apt-get
C.    apt-search
D.    dpkg
E.    dpkg-search

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands is used to change metadata and options for ext3 filesystems?

A.    mod3fs
B.    tune3fs
C.    mod2fs
D.    tune2fs
E.    dump2fs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following are filesystems which can be used on Linux root partitions? (Choose two.)

A.    NTFS
B.    ext3
C.    XFS
D.    VFAT
E.    swap

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 19
Which of the following options must be passed to a filesystem’s entry in /etc/fstab in order to mount the file system without root privileges?

A.    auto
B.    norestrict
C.    noauto
D.    user

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 20
Where does the BIOS search for a bootloader?

A.    On all connected storage media regardless of the boot device order.
B.    On all connected storage media in the defined boot device order.
C.    Only on hard disk drives in the defined boot device order.
D.    Only on the last added storage media.
E.    The BIOS is not responsible to search for a valid bootloader.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which component load balances itself through the use of AirWatch Cloud Messaging (AWCM)?

A.    VMware Secure Email Gateway
B.    VMware Identity Manager Connector
C.    VMware AirWatch Cloud Connector
D.    VMware Unified Access Gateway

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1810/WS1-ACC.pdf

NEW QUESTION 2
Which underlying technology does Automation in Workspace ONE Intelligence use to execute Actions?

A.    SOAP API
B.    Java
C.    REST API
D.    PowerShell

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning a SaaS Workspace ONE deployment that will include integration of an existing on-premises Citrix environment. Which two components are required to integrate the Citrix resources? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware Identity Manager Connector
B.    Integration Broker
C.    VMware Unified Access Gateway
D.    Enrollment Server
E.    Connection Server

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 4
Which method can an administrator use to deploy the VMware Unified Access Gateway (UAG) appliance for use as a Workspace ONE VMware Tunnel?

A.    Manual install to a Linux Server.
B.    Manual install to a Windows Server.
C.    Powershell install to a Windows Server.
D.    Powershell install to vSphere.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/Unified-Access-Gateway/3.3.1/com.vmware.uag-331-deploy-config.doc/GUID-8B96F385-ADE5-4502-8485-6269EE41D222.html

NEW QUESTION 5
Which three values are included in a SAML 2.0 assertion from vIDM to a SaaS application? (Choose three.)

A.    Recipient
B.    AssertionStatus
C.    SubjectValue
D.    Sender
E.    Issuer

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 6
Which two third-party services are currently supported integrations into the Workspace ONE Intelligence Portal? (Choose two.)

A.    Slack
B.    ZenDesk
C.    Solarwinds
D.    Remedy
E.    Service Now
F.    SysAid

Answer: AE
Explanation:
https://kb.vmtestdrive.com/hc/en-us/articles/360002445574-Workspace-ONE-Intelligence-Overview

NEW QUESTION 7
What functionality would be lost if you configure only SAML as compared to SAML and LDAP?

A.    The ability to create assignment groups.
B.    The ability to create user groups.
C.    The ability to sync user groups.
D.    The ability to create organization groups.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
What two steps would an administrator take to troubleshoot iOS devices that are not communicating with the console? (Choose two.)

A.    Confirm that DEP is enabled.
B.    Confirm that the iOS devices have network connection.
C.    Confirm that AWCM is running.
D.    Confirm that the VPP token is valid.
E.    Confirm that the APNs certificate is still valid.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 9
Which scenario requires a company to leverage the VMware Identity Manager connector in addition to the AirWatch Cloud Connector?

A.    Deploy VMware productivity apps.
B.    Integrate with Horizon, Citrix and ThinApp.
C.    Sync user accounts from LDAP to VMware Identity Manager console.
D.    Configure mobile SSO on iOS devices.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/vmware-workspace-one-reference-architecture-saas-deployments

NEW QUESTION 10
Which policy should an administrator modify to grant a user access to the company’s federated Web app in Workspace ONE?

A.    Default access policy set.
B.    Default compliance policy.
C.    Default authentication user.
D.    Default profile policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/workspace-portal-21/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/workspace-portal-21-administrator.pdf

NEW QUESTION 11
Which three features can be enabled by integrating Workspace ONE UEM and VMware Identity Manager services? (Choose three.)

A.    Unified Catalog
B.    Mobile Application Management
C.    Mobile Email Management
D.    Password (Airwatch Connector)
E.    Single Sign-On to Web Applications
F.    Compliance Auth Adapter

Answer: DEF

NEW QUESTION 12
Which Unified Access Gateway (UAG) component can use an AirWatch generated certificate for Inbound SSL traffic?

A.    VMware Tunnel
B.    Content Gateway
C.    AirWatch Cloud Connector
D.    VMware Secure Email Gateway

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/9.7/content-gateway-to-unified-access-gateway-migration-guide.pdf

NEW QUESTION 13
Which two resources can be enabled from Horizon Cloud for Workspace ONE users? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware Horizon Application Management Bundle
B.    VMware Horizon Desktops
C.    VMware Horizon Applications
D.    VMware Horizon Workspace Suite
E.    VMware Horizon ThinApp

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/vmware-workspace-one-reference-architecture-saas-deployments#sec8-sub11

NEW QUESTION 14
Which is a requirement for TLS port sharing on the Unified Access Gateway (UAG)?

A.    The UAG must be using a 2 NIC deployment.
B.    Cascade mode architecture must be implemented.
C.    HA Proxy service must be running.
D.    Must deploy the UAG via PowerShell method.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/Unified-Access-Gateway/3.1/com.vmware.uag-31-deploy-config.doc/GUID-0679AADA-457F-4688-AE46-AA91C327A90B.html

NEW QUESTION 15
A topology, which includes placement of Workspace ONE service applications within layered internal networks, as well as communication workflows of requesting and receiving services, is an example of what kind of architectural design?

A.    Conceptual
B.    Logical
C.    Virtual
D.    Physical

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-and-horizon-reference-architecture#sec14-sub3

NEW QUESTION 16
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NEW QUESTION 1
You’re about to deploy an Enterprise-class VoWLAN infrastructure. You need to ensure that QoS is properly configured throughout the network. What Access Category (AC) should voice frames/packets use?

A.    AC_VI
B.    AC_VO
C.    AC_BE
D.    AC_BK

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
When designing a static channel plan for an office using voice devices near an airport, which range of channels should be avoided to ensure optimal performance when implemented?

A.    36-40
B.    44-48
C.    116-124
D.    1-11

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
What is the most cost-effective way to accurately measure the height of a ceiling when ladder use is not allowed?

A.    Estimate the height based on known object sizes.
B.    Gather measurements from other objects and do the math.
C.    Rent a lift-cart to lift you up to the ceiling.
D.    Use a laser measure to measure the distance from the floor to the ceiling.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
You performed a site survey with two USB Wi-Fi adapters using a special driver written for the site survey software. After deployment, you realized that the client devices used by your customer are getting lower RSSI values than that shown during your site survey. What is the most likely reason for this result?

A.    USB Wi-Fi adapters designed for site surveys may have better sensitivity than regular Wi-Fi cards installed in client devices.
B.    The transmit power on the APs is higher than needed.
C.    Regular Wi-Fi cards installed in client devices do not support the same protocols as survey adapters.
D.    USB Wi-Fi adapters have a greater sensitivity than internal Wi-Fi adapters.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Your customer requires fast secure roaming. Which two types of roaming are specified in 802.11-2016 FT roaming that will help meet this goal?

A.    Over-the-Air and Over-the-DS
B.    Over-the-Air and Over-the-Wire
C.    FT and OKC
D.    FT and TKIP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which document provided to your customer should include all devices and parts that are going to be used during the deployment of their WLAN infrastructure?

A.    SoW
B.    BoM
C.    Design report
D.    Project plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
Which DHCP option, when required, should be configured and enabled to help APs locate their wireless LAN controller?

A.    150
B.    62
C.    43
D.    22

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
During your first pre-deployment meeting with the deployment team, you hand out the full design documentation to all of them. What’s your primary goal during this meeting?

A.    To explain design decisions and ensure understanding of design documents.
B.    To discuss AP functionality.
C.    To explain how Wi-Fi works.
D.    To justify the budget.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
What kind of site survey helps you identify if roaming is working as designed?

A.    Passive
B.    Predictive
C.    Active
D.    Spectrum analysis walkthrough

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
During lunch time in the break room of a company, Wi-Fi connectivity on the 2.4GHz band is intermittent. Every other time of the day, it works fine. What’s the likely cause of this issue?

A.    Employees are using their cell data instead of using the Wi-Fi.
B.    The AP in the cafeteria keeps rebooting due to lack of PoE budget on the switch.
C.    Toasters and ovens are heating up the air, raising the noise floor with the Wi-Fi on the 2.4Ghz band.
D.    Microwaves in the cafeteria are interfering with the Wi-Fi on the 2.4GHz band.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
Who should be in the final meeting from the customer-side after successfully implementing a WLAN infrastructure?

A.    CEO or CFO
B.    End-users
C.    The customer’s customers
D.    Remote workers

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
While performing a validation site survey, you realize that overlapping channels are being used on the 2.4GHz bad due to the automatic channel assignment algorithm of the WLAN infrastructure. What should you do to prevent this?

A.    Reconfigure the automatic channel assignment settings to use only channels 1, 6, and 11.
B.    Purchase and deploy new APs from a different vendor.
C.    Reconfigure the network to use static channel plans because automatic channel assignment algorithms are all broken.
D.    Leave it as it is, sometimes using all 11 channels in 2.4GHz gives the optimum performance result.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
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NEW QUESTION 501
Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

A.    Remote Access
B.    UserCheck
C.    AD Query
D.    RADIUS

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/

NEW QUESTION 502
Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway?

A.    Antivirus
B.    Data Loss Prevention
C.    NAT
D.    Application Control

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SGW_WebAdmin/96332.htm

NEW QUESTION 503
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

A.    All Site-to-Site VPN Communities.
B.    Accept all encrypted traffic.
C.    All Connections (Clear or Encrypted).
D.    Specific VPN Communities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 504
A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a ____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

A.    formal; corporate
B.    local; formal
C.    local; central
D.    central; local

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

NEW QUESTION 505
Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?

A.    Users
B.    Networks
C.    Time
D.    Machines

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm

NEW QUESTION 506
What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A.    To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.
B.    To reduce the number of rules in the database.
C.    To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.
D.    To hide the gateway from the Internet.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=387728&seqNum=3

NEW QUESTION 507
It is the best practice to have a ____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

A.    Explicit Drop
B.    Implied Drop
C.    Explicit CleanUp
D.    Implicit Drop

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/NFHf4E9NLQBJlVkHRpc16w2

NEW QUESTION 508
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

A.    Access Role
B.    User Group
C.    SmartDirectory Group
D.    Group Template

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 509
The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

A.    Next Generation Threat Prevention
B.    Next Generation Threat Emulation
C.    Next Generation Threat Extraction
D.    Next Generation Firewall

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 510
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ____.

A.    sent to the Internal Certificate Authority
B.    sent to the Security Administrator
C.    stored on the Security Management Server
D.    stored on the Certificate Revocation List

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 511
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

A.    Network Bandwidth Saturation
B.    Buffer Overflow
C.    SYN Flood
D.    SQL Injection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 512
R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems?

A.    Windows only
B.    Gaia only
C.    Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows
D.    SecurePlatform only

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/General-Management-Topics/R80-x-FAQ/td-p/39994

NEW QUESTION 513
How do you manage Gaia?

A.    Through CLI and WebUI
B.    Through CLI only
C.    Through SmartDashboard only
D.    Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 514
What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

A.    Verification tool
B.    Verification licensing
C.    Automatic licensing
D.    Automatic licensing and Verification tool

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 515
How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A.    2
B.    7
C.    6
D.    4

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 516
Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

A.    Publish database
B.    Save changes
C.    Install policy
D.    Activate policy

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 517
What is UserCheck?

A.    Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials.
B.    Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.
C.    Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.
D.    Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 518
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.    None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.
B.    SmartConsole.
C.    SecureClient.
D.    SmartEvent.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/158318

NEW QUESTION 519
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

A.    A rule used to hide a server’s IP address from the outside world.
B.    A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.
C.    To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.
D.    A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=387728&seqNum=3

NEW QUESTION 520
To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

A.    Revisions
B.    Gateway installations
C.    Installation history
D.    Gateway history

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/119225

NEW QUESTION 521
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NEW QUESTION 265
An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

A.    He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.
B.    He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.
C.    He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.
D.    He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 266
Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R80 Identity Awareness Web API?

A.    SOAP
B.    REST
C.    XLANG
D.    XML-RPC

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 267
Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R80?

A.    fwm
B.    cpmd
C.    cpm
D.    cpd

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 268
What is the command to show SecureXL status?

A.    fwaccel status
B.    fwaccel stats -m
C.    fwaccel -s
D.    fwaccel stat

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 269
With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

A.    Threat Cloud Intelligence.
B.    Threat Prevention Software Blade Package.
C.    Endpoint Total Protection.
D.    Traffic on port 25.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 270
What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

A.    Execute an automated script to perform common tasks.
B.    Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database.
C.    Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution.
D.    Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 271
Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft ____ API to learn users from AD.

A.    WMI
B.    Eventvwr
C.    XML
D.    Services.msc

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 272
Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

A.    Correlation Unit
B.    SmartEvent Unit
C.    SmartEvent Server
D.    Log Server

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 273
The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

A.    ccp
B.    cphaconf
C.    cphad
D.    cphastart

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 274
What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

A.    fwm compile
B.    fwm load
C.    fwm fetch
D.    fwm install

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 275
What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

A.    The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster.
B.    The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain.
C.    Overview over SecureXL templated connections.
D.    Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 276
What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

A.    Check Point Protect Application
B.    Management Dashboard
C.    Behavior Risk Engine
D.    Check Point Gateway

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 277
What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R80.10 management server?

A.    Validating all data before it’s written into the database.
B.    It generates indexes of data written to the database.
C.    Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server.
D.    Writing all information into the database.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 278
Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

A.    $FWDIR/conf/conf.conf
B.    $FWDIR/conf/servers.conf
C.    $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D.    $FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 279
Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

A.    cpwd_admin -l
B.    cpwd -l
C.    cpwd admin_list
D.    cpwd_admin list

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 280
What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

A.    1-254
B.    1-255
C.    0-254
D.    0-255

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 281
For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

A.    20 minutes
B.    15 minutes
C.    Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically
D.    30 minutes at least

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 282
Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

A.    SmartEvent Server
B.    Correlation Unit
C.    Log Consolidator
D.    Log Server

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 283
What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

A.    Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture.
B.    Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system.
C.    If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network.
D.    Clean up email sent with malicious attachments.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 284
What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

A.    Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.
B.    Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.
C.    Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.
D.    Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 285
What command would show the API server status?

A.    cpm status
B.    api restart
C.    api status
D.    show api status

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 286
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

A.    Accounting
B.    Suppression
C.    Accounting/Suppression
D.    Accounting/Extended

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 287
Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

A.    sim affinity -m
B.    sim affinity -l
C.    sim affinity -a
D.    sim affinity -s

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 288
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.    Incoming
B.    Internal
C.    External
D.    Outgoing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 289
What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

A.    cpmq get
B.    show interface all
C.    cpmq set
D.    show multiqueue all

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 290
Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R80.10 based management. Which one is correct?

A.    Gateways & Servers –> Compliance View
B.    Compliance blade not available under R80.10
C.    Logs & Monitor –> New Tab –> Open compliance View
D.    Security & Policies –> New Tab –> Compliance View

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 291
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NEW QUESTION 271
You have an Azure DNS zone named adatum.com. You need to delegate a subdomain named research.adatum.com to a different DNS server in Azure. What should you do?

A.    Create an PTR record named research in the adatum.com zone.
B.    Create an NS record named research in the adatum.com zone.
C.    Modify the SOA record of adatum.com.
D.    Create an A record named research in the adatum.com zone.

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to create a name server (NS) record for the zone.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/delegate-subdomain

NEW QUESTION 272
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do?

A.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
B.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
D.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Download the Vault registration key. You need this when you install the Provider. The key is valid for five days after you generate it. Install the Provider on each VMM server. You don’t need to explicitly install anything on Hyper-V hosts.
Incorrect:
Not B, D: Use the Vault Registration Key, not the storage account key.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure

NEW QUESTION 273
Your company has a main office in London that contains 100 client computers. Three years ago, you migrated to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The company’s security policy states that all personal devices and corporate-owned devices must be registered or joined to Azure AD. A remote user named User1 is unable to join a personal device to Azure AD from a home network. You verify that other users can join their devices to Azure AD. You need to ensure that User1 can join the device to Azure AD. What should you do?

A.    From the Device settings blade, modify the Users may join devices to Azure AD setting.
B.    From the Device settings blade, modify the Maximum number of devices per user setting.
C.    Create a point-to-site VPN from the home network of User1 to Azure.
D.    Assign the User administrator role to User1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Maximum number of devices setting enables you to select the maximum number of devices that a user can have in Azure AD. If a user reaches this quota, they will not be able to add additional devices until one or more of the existing devices are removed.
Incorrect:
Not A: The Users may join devices to Azure AD setting enables you to select the users who can join devices to Azure AD. Options are All, Selected and None. The default is All.
Not C: Azure AD Join enables users to join their devices to Active Directory from anywhere as long as they have connectivity with the Internet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/device-management-azure-portal http://techgenix.com/pros-and-cons-azure-ad-join/

NEW QUESTION 274
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All administrators must enter a verification code to access the Azure portal. You need to ensure that the administrators can access the Azure portal only from your on-premises network. What should you configure?

A.    an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy
B.    the multi-factor authentication service settings
C.    the default for all the roles in Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
D.    an Azure AD Identity Protection sign-in risk policy

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 275
HotSpot
You have an Azure subscription. You plan to use Azure Resource Manager templates to deploy 50 Azure virtual machines that will be part of the same availability set. You need to ensure that as many virtual machines as possible are available if the fabric fails or during servicing. How should you configure the template? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.itprotoday.com/microsoft-azure/check-if-azure-region-supports-2-or-3-fault-domains-managed-disks
https://github.com/Azure/acs-engine/issues/1030

NEW QUESTION 276
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A.    an Azure Cosmos DB database
B.    Azure File Storage
C.    the Azure File Sync Storage Sync Service
D.    Azure Data Factory

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter. The maximum size of an Azure Files Resource of a file share is 5 TB.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

NEW QUESTION 277
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. Azure collects events from VM1. You are creating an alert rule in Azure Monitor to notify an administrator when an error is logged in the System event log of VM1. You need to specify which resource type to monitor. What should you specify?

A.    metric alert
B.    Azure Log Analytics workspace
C.    virtual machine
D.    virtual machine extension

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure Monitor can collect data directly from your Azure virtual machines into a Log Analytics workspace for detailed analysis and correlation. Installing the Log Analytics VM extension for Windows and Linux allows Azure Monitor to collect data from your Azure VMs.
Incorrect:
Not B: Azure Log Analytics workspace is used for on-premises computers monitored by System Center Operations Manager.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/learn/quick-collect-azurevm

NEW QUESTION 278
You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate. From Azure, you download and install the VPN client configuration package on a computer named Computer2. You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2.
Solution: You export the client certificate from Computer1 and install the certificate on Computer2.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Each client computer that connects to a VNet using Point-to-Site must have a client certificate installed. You generate a client certificate from the self-signed root certificate, and then export and install the client certificate. If the client certificate is not installed, authentication fails.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-certificates-point-to-site

NEW QUESTION 279
You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate. From Azure, you download and install the VPN client configuration package on a computer named Computer2. You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2.
Solution: On Computer2, you set the Startup type for the IPSec Policy Agent service to Automatic.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead export the client certificate from Computer1 and install the certificate on Computer2. Note: Each client computer that connects to a VNet using Point-to-Site must have a client certificate installed. You generate a client certificate from the self-signed root certificate, and then export and install the client certificate. If the client certificate is not installed, authentication fails.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-certificates-point-to-site

NEW QUESTION 280
HotSpot
You need to create an Azure Storage account that meets the following requirements:
– Minimize costs
– Supports hot, cool, and archive blob tiers
– Provides fault tolerance if a disaster affects the Azure region where the account resides
How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: StorageV2. You may only tier your object storage data to hot, cool, or archive in Blob storage and General Purpose v2 (GPv2) accounts. General Purpose v1 (GPv1) accounts do not support tiering. General-purpose v2 accounts deliver the lowest per-gigabyte capacity prices for Azure Storage, as well as industry-competitive transaction prices.
Box 2: Standard_GRS. Geo-redundant storage (GRS): Cross-regional replication to protect against region-wide unavailability.
Incorrect:
1. Locally-redundant storage (LRS): A simple, low-cost replication strategy. Data is replicated within a single storage scale unit.
2. Read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS): Cross-regional replication with read access to the replica. RA-GRS provides read-only access to the data in the secondary location, in addition to geo-replication across two regions, but is more expensive compared to GRS.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

NEW QUESTION 281
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NEW QUESTION 275
You are planning to create a virtual network that has a scale set that contains six virtual machines (VMs). A monitoring solution on a different network will need access to the VMs inside the scale set. You need to define public access to the VMs.
Solution: Use Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to connect to the VM in the scale set.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Instead, deploy a standalone VM that has a public IP address to the virtual network.

NEW QUESTION 276
You create an Azure virtual machine named VM1 in a resource group named RG1. You discover that VM1 performs slower than expected. You need to capture a network trace on VM1. What should you do?

A.    From Diagnostic settings for VM1, configure the performance counters to include network counters.
B.    From the VM1 blade, configure Connection troubleshoot.
C.    From the VM1 blade, install performance diagnostics and run advanced performance analysis.
D.    From Diagnostic settings for VM1, configure the log level of the diagnostic agent.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The performance diagnostics tool helps you troubleshoot performance issues that can affect a Windows or Linux virtual machine (VM). Supported troubleshooting scenarios include quick checks on known issues and best practices, and complex problems that involve slow VM performance or high usage of CPU, disk space, or memory. Advanced performance analysis, included in the performance diagnostics tool, includes all checks in the performance analysis, and collects one or more of the traces, as listed in the following sections. Use this scenario to troubleshoot complex issues that require additional traces. Running this scenario for longer periods will increase the overall size of diagnostics output, depending on the size of the VM and the trace options that are selected.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/troubleshooting/performance-diagnostics

NEW QUESTION 277
A company plans to use third-party application software to perform complex data analysis processes. The software will use up to 500 identical virtual machines (VMs) based on an Azure Marketplace VM image. You need to design the infrastructure for the third-party application server. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– The number of VMs that are running at any given point in time must change when the user workload changes.
– When a new version of the application is available in Azure Marketplace it must be deployed without causing application downtime.
– Use VM scale sets.
– Minimize the need for ongoing maintenance.
Which two technologies should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    single storage account
B.    autoscale
C.    single placement group
D.    managed disks

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 278
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other Identity Governance settings are available. Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles. You need to ensure that the Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com.
Solution: You consent to Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM).
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about. Key features of PIM include: Conduct access reviews to ensure users still need roles. Note: Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Privileged Identity Management (PIM) is a service that enables you to manage, control, and monitor access to important resources in your organization. This includes access to resources in Azure AD, Azure resources, and other Microsoft Online Services like Office 365 or Microsoft Intune.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 279
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other Identity Governance settings are available. Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles. You need to ensure that the Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com.
Solution: You assign the Global administrator role to Admin1.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure AD Privileged Identity Management. Note: PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about. Key features of PIM include: Conduct access reviews to ensure users still need roles.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 280
You have a resource group named RG1 that contains the following:
– A virtual network that contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2.
– An Azure Storage account named contososa1.
– An Azure firewall deployed to Subnet2.
You need to ensure that contososa1 is accessible from Subnet1 over the Azure backbone network. What should you do?

A.    Deploy an Azure firewall to Subnet1.
B.    Remove the Azure firewall.
C.    Implement a virtual network service endpoint.
D.    Create a stored access policy for contososa1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual Network (VNet) service endpoints extend your virtual network private address space and the identity of your VNet to the Azure services, over a direct connection. Endpoints allow you to secure your critical Azure service resources to only your virtual networks. Traffic from your VNet to the Azure service always remains on the Microsoft Azure backbone network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-service-endpoints-overview

NEW QUESTION 281
You have an Azure subscription. You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You manage Server1 by using Windows Admin Center. You need to ensure that if Server1 fails, you can recover the data from Azure.
Solution: From the Azure portal, you create a Recovery Services vault. On VM1, you install the Azure Backup agent and you schedule a backup.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Storage Sync service and configure Azure File. Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility, performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick cache of your Azure file share.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-files-introduction

NEW QUESTION 282
You have an Azure subscription. You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2019. You manage Server1 by using Windows Admin Center. You need to ensure that if Server1 fails, you can recover the data from Azure.
Solution: You create an Azure Storage account and an Azure Storage Sync service. You configure Azure File Sync for Server1.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility, performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick cache of your Azure file share. Azure Files offers fully managed file shares in the cloud that are accessible via the industry standard Server Message Block (SMB) protocol. Azure file shares can be mounted concurrently by cloud or on- premises deployments of Windows, Linux, and macOS. Additionally, Azure file shares can be cached on Windows Servers with Azure File Sync for fast access near where the data is being used.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-files-introduction
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide?tabs=azure-portal

NEW QUESTION 283
A company is migrating an existing on-premises third-party website to Azure. The website is stateless. The company does not have access to the source code for the website. They have the original installer. The number of visitors at the website varies throughout the year. The on-premises infrastructure was resized to accommodate peaks but the extra capacity was not used. You need to implement a virtual machine scale set instance. What should you do?

A.    Use a webhook to log autoscale failures.
B.    Use an autoscale setting to scale instances vertically.
C.    Use only default diagnostics metrics to trigger autoscaling
D.    Use an autoscale setting to define more profiles that have one or more autoscale rules.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In-guest VM metrics with the Azure diagnostics extension The Azure diagnostics extension is an agent that runs inside a VM instance. The agent monitors and saves performance metrics to Azure storage. These performance metrics contain more detailed information about the status of the VM, such as AverageReadTime for disks or PercentIdleTime for CPU. You can create autoscale rules based on a more detailed awareness of the VM performance, not just the percentage of CPU usage or memory consumption.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/virtual-machine-scale-sets-autoscale-overview

NEW QUESTION 284
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install a line-to-business application on VM1. You need to create an Azure virtual machine by using VM1 as a custom image. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 1: Run sysprep.exe on VM1. If a template, or system image is used, System administrators must run the Sysprep tool to clear the SID information. The Sysprep tool is usually one of the last tasks performed by a system administrator when building a server image/template, that way each clone of the template will generalize a new unique SID for every server image copied from the template and will prepare the server for a first time boot. The end result is a System template that functions as a new unique build every time it is deployed.
Step 2: From Azure CLI, deallocate VM1 and mark VM1 as generalized To create an image, the VM needs to be deallocated. Deallocate the VM with Stop-AzVm. Then, set the state of the VM as generalized with Set-AzVm so that the Azure platform knows the VM is ready for use a custom image.
Step 3: Create a virtual machine scale set. Now create a scale set with New-AzVmss that uses the -ImageName parameter to define the custom VM image created in the previous step.
https://thesolving.com/server-room/when-and-how-to-use-sysprep/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-use-custom-image-powershell

NEW QUESTION 285
HotSpot
You play to deploy an Azure virtual machine named VM1 by using an Azure Resource Manager template. You need to complete the template. What should you include in the template? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-tutorial-create-templates-with-dependent-resources

NEW QUESTION 286
……

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NEW QUESTION 105
You are securing access to the resources in an Azure subscription. A new company policy states that all the Azure virtual machines in the subscription must use managed disks. You need to prevent users from creating virtual machines that use unmanaged disks. What should you do?

A.    Azure Monitor
B.    Azure Policy
C.    Azure Security Center
D.    Azure Service Health

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 106
You have an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that will connect to an Azure Container Registry. You need to use automatically generated service principal for the AKS cluster to authenticate to the Azure Container Registry. What should you create?

A.    a secret in Azure Key Vault
B.    a role assignment
C.    an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) user
D.    an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/kubernetes-service-principal

NEW QUESTION 107
You use Azure Security Center for the centralized policy management of three Azure subscriptions. You use several policy definitions to manage the security of the subscriptions. You need to deploy the policy definitions as a group to all three subscriptions.
Solution: You create an initiative and an assignment that is scoped to a management group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

NEW QUESTION 108
You have an Azure subscription that contains a user named User1 and an Azure Container Registry named ConReg1. You enable content trust for ContReg1. You need to ensure that User1 can create trusted images in ContReg1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which two roles should you assign to User1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    AcrQuarantineReader
B.    Contributor
C.    AcrPush
D.    AcrImageSigner
E.    AcrQuarantineWriter

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-registry/container-registry-content-trust
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-registry/container-registry-roles

NEW QUESTION 109
You are troubleshooting a security issue for an Azure Storage account. You enable the diagnostic logs for the storage account. What should you use to retrieve the diagnostics logs?

A.    the Security & Compliance admin center
B.    SQL query editor in Azure
C.    File Explorer in Windows
D.    AzCopy

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-analytics-logging?toc=%2fazure%2fstorage%2fblobs%2ftoc.json

NEW QUESTION 110
You have an Azure Storage account named storage1 that has a container named container1. You need to prevent the blobs in container1 from being modified. What should you do?

A.    From container1, change the access level.
B.    From container1, add an access policy.
C.    From container1, modify the Access Control (IAM) settings.
D.    From storage1, enable soft delete for blobs.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage?tabs=azure-portal

NEW QUESTION 111
You company has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You plan to create several security alerts by using Azure Monitor. You need to prepare the Azure subscription for the alerts. What should you create first?

A.    an Azure Storage account
B.    an Azure Log Analytics workspace
C.    an Azure event hub
D.    an Azure Automation account

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 112
You company has an Azure subscription named Sub1. Sub1 contains an Azure web app named WebApp1 that uses Azure Application Insights. WebApp1 requires users to authenticate by using OAuth 2.0 client secrets. Developers at the company plan to create a multi-step web test app that preforms synthetic transactions emulating user traffic to Web App1. You need to ensure that web tests can run unattended. What should you do first?

A.    In Microsoft Visual Studio, modify the .webtest file.
B.    Upload the .webtest file to Application Insights.
C.    Register the web test app in Azure AD.
D.    Add a plug-in to the web test app.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 113
You are troubleshooting a security issue for an Azure Storage account. You enable the diagnostic logs for the storage account. What should you use to retrieve the diagnostics logs?

A.    The Security & Compliance admin center
B.    Azure Security Center
C.    Azure Cosmos DB explorer
D.    AzCopy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 114
Drag and Drop
You are configuring network connectivity for two Azure virtual networks named VNET1 and VNET2. You need to implement VPN gateways for the virtual networks to meet the following requirements:
– VNET1 must have six site-to-site connections that use BGP.
– VNET2 must have 12 site-to-site connections that use BGP.
– Costs must be minimized.
Which VPN gateway SKU should you use for each virtual network? (To answer, drag the appropriate SKUs to the correct networks. Each SKU may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-about-vpngateways#gwsku

NEW QUESTION 115
HotSpot
You are configuring just in time (JIT) VM access to a set of Azure virtual machines. You need to grant users PowerShell access to the virtual machine by using JIT VM access. What should you configure? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 116
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